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Stream: theory: mathematics

Topic: Metrizability for genetralized metric spaces


view this post on Zulip Jean-Baptiste Vienney (Dec 16 2023 at 02:22):

Metrizability is (or was) a very popular topic in point-set topology. When I google it, I can't find anything about metrizability where the notion of metric is weakened. For instance pseudometrizability where a pseudometric is like a metric but without ρ(x,y)=0x=y\rho(x,y)=0 \Rightarrow x=y. Or Lawvere-metrizability. Does anyone know something or references about that?

view this post on Zulip Chris Grossack (they/them) (Dec 16 2023 at 06:50):

This has definitely been studied, but it seems to be fairly niche. Here are some references I was able to find, though:

It seems like one reason people may not have studied this is that for $T_1$ spaces, pseudometrizability agrees with metrizability (see here). Indeed another mse question here says that for $T_0$ spaces a pseudometric is a metric! (I think there may be multiple concepts called "pseudometric", so one may not be an immediate strengthening of the other. I haven't thought about this at all, I'm just sending you stuff I found, so I'm not sure precisely which definitions these answerers are using)


I hope this helps ^_^

view this post on Zulip Chris Grossack (they/them) (Dec 16 2023 at 06:58):

Ah! I clearly should have looked up "lawvere metrization" as well as "pseudometrization". When I did that I immediately found this mo question which claims that every topological space with a countable base is lawvere metrizable (it also links to another mse post which might itself be worth a read!)

This might be implicit in some of the posts I linked above (again, I didn't really read them) but it's nice to see it spelled out.

view this post on Zulip Todd Trimble (Dec 16 2023 at 11:00):

Confirming that quasi-pseudo-metric spaces are the same thing as Lawvere metric spaces. "Quasi" is where you drop the symmetry condition d(x,y)=d(y,x)d(x, y) = d(y, x). "Pseudo" is where you drop the separation condition d(x,y)=0d(x, y) = 0 implies x=yx = y.

view this post on Zulip John Baez (Dec 16 2023 at 11:37):

Chris wrote:

It seems like one reason people may not have studied this is that for T1T_1 spaces, pseudometrizability agrees with metrizability.

I guess it's good to think about metrizability versus Lawvere metrizability for the space {x,y}\{x,y\} with just three open sets: {x}\{x\}, {x,y}\{x,y\} and the empty set.

view this post on Zulip Todd Trimble (Dec 16 2023 at 11:42):

Indeed another mse question here says that for $T_0$ spaces a pseudometric is a metric!

Of course what Brian Scott in his answer meant is that a pseudometrizable T0T_0 space is metrizable, using the same (pseudo)metric. The proof is not difficult.

view this post on Zulip Todd Trimble (Dec 16 2023 at 11:42):

Pseudometric spaces typically crop up in analysis when people are studying the topology induced by a seminorm. Seminorms crop up a lot in functional analysis. For example, if UU is an open region in Rn\mathbb{R}^n, then one can write UU as a countable union of compact subsets KnK_n, and consider for continuous functions f:UCf: U \to \mathbb{C} the function

ρn(f)=maxxKnf(x)\rho_n(f) = \max_{x \in K_n} |f(x)|

which is a seminorm but not yet a norm (but the ρn\rho_n collectively form a separating family of seminorms, and there is a standard way of creating a norm from such a separating family). Variations on this theme are used to create suitable topologies on spaces of smooth functions on open regions.