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I was wondering if the following is correct.
Let be a theory consisting of the formula “”, for function-symbol “”.
In order to determine models for this theory, select a set .
To be valid, “” must be realized as a function , for which, for all , .
It seems like we are saying the same thing, but we’re not. We’re using concepts from the ambient set theory, when we say:
Let be a function , such that for all , .
I think there is a formal way to show that if you map , then . I am not sure at this moment what that is. I recall there is an inductive definition of the relation, but I think it defines “(a map from a signature to a structure) modeling (a theory)” similar as to above: “” iff ; “” iff . Similarly, it defines the meaning of logical symbols in terms of natural language - for example, “” iff for all , . Or maybe, iff for all , “”?
Let’s assume we showed formally that .
By an abuse of notation, we also say iff for all models of , .
Again, there is some slipperiness, to my mind, regarding distinguishing between formulae of the theory, versus the language we use to describe our model, to show they link up.
In the language of my ambient set theory, I might say that for all , ; or that , where is still the function such that .
To show that in a model, it seems easier to select a set and use algebraic rules to show reduces to which reduces to .
I suppose to show that this holds in all models, I should try showing the above, for arbitrary ?
Something like:
Let be any set.
Let be the function such that .
Let (where ).
, because “” becomes “” (or roughly that. I recall now there is a notation for expressing this that I will go back to and study now.)
And I suppose I am to say, that since the identity function on any set has the property , I would be able to conclude that .
Seeking advice, commentary or discussion. Thanks.
Let me first ask a question: are you trying to define a subset in a model or realize a type?
I didn’t think I was trying to do either of those things, but maybe I was and didn’t realize it.
Alright, then! Maybe this was overkill and you're just playing around with substitution.
I don’t know, but I’d love to hear your thoughts and learn more from you.
But ultimately, my question is about the proper way to prove that a formula is semantically entailed by a group of formulae .
But this is a totally different story, and we do not really need model theory for that!
It is sufficient to have a system whose soundness and completeness is proved and a bunch of premises and rules of inference to do the proof.
:sunglasses:
Call the axiom that you have AX. Now, lucky you, FOL is sound and complete. So the argument goes like this:
This is the mathematical deduction, then you have to encode it (if you have to idk);
Notice also the business works for any power of .