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Is it (well-)known what the initial model of the essentially algebraic theory of categories with
possibly related: http://www.tac.mta.ca/tac/volumes/8/n5/n5.pdf
Ryan Wisnesky said:
possibly related: http://www.tac.mta.ca/tac/volumes/8/n5/n5.pdf
so, I guess, a related question might be: what if we do require distributivity “on top”
(the reference might be interesting)
alas, we have
(Note that we are not assuming any sort of distributivity.) [op. cit., p. 71]
Not exactly an answer, but pretty similar: A universal characterization of standard Borel spaces shows that the category of standard Borel measurable spaces and measurable maps is the initial countably complete Boolean countably extensive category. A very intriguing result!
The free [[distributive category]] on a category is given by the free [[cocartesian category]] on the free [[cartesian category]] on . Is this the kind of answer you're looking for? (Obviously the initial model can be given quite trivially syntactically, but presumably you're looking for a more categorical description.)
This is nice. The free cartesian category on 1 object is , and the free cocartesian category on that should also admit some nice description. I think one description goes like this: take the category of presheaves on , and take the full subcategory consisting of finite coproducts of representables. So, this subcategory should be the free distributive category on 1 object.
is also the category of finite boolean algebras, say . So, to get the free distributive category on 1 object, we can also take the category of presheaves on , and take the full subcategory consisting of finite coproducts of representables.
But it would be nice to have a more charismatic description.
Thanks a lot for all the interesting pointers!
In fact, it now seems called for to clarify the question I wanted to ask: Given an essentially algebraic theory T such that to give a model for T is to give a distributive category, is there a well-known (simple) characterization of its initial model, i.e., the initial object in (cf. essentially algebraic theory).
Note, by distributive category, I mean a category with finite products and finite co-products that is distributive, i.e., the canonical map A × B + A × C → A × (B + C) is invertible.
As it happens, we are currently working on the project geb, which piggybacks on the conjecture that the category we are describing above is equivalent to via the evident functor. The result seems very intuitive, but we have found no references either confirming or denying it. Artem has formalized almost everything in Agda (up to atrocious details https://github.com/anoma/geb/tree/main/geb-agda). Hence, we were wondering if someone has had an observation akin to the describe one, which we could cite?
TL;DR; we want the answer to be -- and someone must have had this observation, no?
Just to check, the morphisms between distributive categories are then meant to be functors that preserve finite coproducts and finite products?
Reid Barton said:
Just to check, the morphisms between distributive categories are then meant to be functors that preserve finite coproducts and finite products?
yes, as all the structure that the theory T talks about must be prserved on the nose
Oh I missed that you were talking about 1-categorical models.
Is that the essential part of your question? It seems pretty easy to prove that any distributive category admits an essentially unique functor from FinSet that preserves finite coproducts and products (in the usual up-to-isomorphism sense). Sketch: Finite-coproduct-preserving functors from FinSet to a category C with finite coproducts are essentially determined by where they send the one point set; in order to also preserve the empty product, they have to set it to the terminal object of C; then we need to check that this thing preservses all binary products, and we can use the distributivity of C to do it.
Then there should be some way to deduce that the initial strict model of your T is equivalent to FinSet but I'm not very good at that stuff.
@Tobias Heindel: that the initial model is FinSet follows from my earlier message. In particular, if you have no base sorts or constants, then you consider the free cartesian category on the empty category, which is just the one-object category , and then the free cocartesian category on , which is FinSet.
In general, the initial model of "the theory of X's" is "the free X" (essentially by definition).
(Note that it is initial amongst distributive categories with chosen products and coproducts, so strictly speaking you may need to take an equivalent subcategory skeleton of FinSet, otherwise it only satisfies the universal property up to equivalence rather than isomorphism.)
I don't think you want a skeleton, but rather a fluffed-up version of the skeleton with one object for each expression you can write using , , , .
I think this syntax is just simple enough that you could prove by hand (i.e., without appealing to general strictification results) that the strictly initial distributive category also has the "up to equivalence" universal property.
In particular, it's convenient that the rules for constructing objects don't depend on morphisms at all, and so in particular they don't involve quotienting by any relations.
Tobias Heindel said:
TL;DR; we want the answer to be -- and someone must have had this observation, no?
This is not an answer to your question, but it might still be mildly interesting:
There's a concept more general than 'distributive category' called a [[rig category]]: it has symmetric monoidal structures and , with distributing over up to coherent isomorphism, but we don't require that be product or be coproduct.
A while ago I conjectured that the initial rig category is the groupoid of finite sets and bijections, with the usual of sets as and the usual of sets as . (These are not product and coproduct in the groupoid of finite sets.)
This has subsequently been proved, it seems, though the original proof had mistakes.
Since every distributive category is a rig category there should be a map from the initial rig category to the initial distributive category.
And if the initial distributive category is the category of finite sets and functions, then this map should be the obvious one!
John Baez said:
And if the initial distributive category is the category of finite sets and functions, then this map should be the obvious one!
This indeed is very interesting. Is the proof available and, if so, could you share a link? https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/rig%20category#baezs_conjecture
Thanks a lot everybody!
Yes, there are links to a number of proofs at [[rig category]]. For someone with a strong interest in this subject, Elgueta's earlier failed proof may also be interesting: it may at least serve to make people read the newer proofs with caution, looking for mistakes (which I have not yet done).