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I have a question on weak derivatives. I do not understand the derivation of the second equality above example 2 in the following snippet: 111.jpg Why is [the second = here in the r.h.s. snippet true ??] true: 222.jpg
They're applying integration-by-parts to the first integral, and the fundamental theorem of calculus to the second integral. There's also a typo, there should be a 2 instead of a 1.
No, I have verified directly with the author that there is no typo there. The thing is that both ones there are bounds where doesn't vanish. But still I do not know how can I use IBP here. Could you be more specific and provide me with the full calculation ? Here is what Evans, the author of this book PDE says: "I guess I do not understand your question.
In Example 2, the test function vanishes at and , but not necessarily
at . This is what leads to the contradiction.
"
Oh yeah, you're right that there's no typo
Applying integration by parts to the first integral gives
and applying the fundamental theorem of calculus to the second integral gives
but is compactly supported so . Adding the remaining terms together gives what we want
I've catch it. Now, is there any connection with the Green's theorem ?
Why would you want to bring Green's Theorem into 1-variable calculus?
I was told that in the snippet below (1) is a consequence of Green's theorem as well as the computation of my example 1. It is just the previous page of my example (1) above. 111.jpg I do not understand Green's theorem much, anyway.