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I'm trying to understand etale maps of (commutative) rings in various elementary ways, preferably with a minimum of stuff about schemes (other than affine schemes). The intuition is that an etale map of commutative rings
is supposed to be one that gives rise to a covering
with finitely many sheets. So there should be two conditions in the definition of "etale", one that captures the "covering" idea and the other being a finiteness condition.
The answers to this Math Stackexchange question are a bit frustrating, but after reading them multiple times I can extract some useful information:
The first answer uses a somewhat nonstandard definition, as the comments below it reveal.
With that wrinkle removed, it seems to say a morphism of rings is etale if:
A) it is formally etale: if is a square-zero extension (meaning its kernel has ) then is a bijection.
B) is finitely presented as an -algebra.
The second condition is the finiteness condition and that's just fine.
The first is the more important one. Saying that is square-zero extension should be a way of saying that the map is a "first-order infinitesimal thickening".
The easiest example is where is sent to zero.
Here is a point, and is a "point with first-order infinitesimal fuzz", or "infinitesimal arrow" for short.
So, the "formally etale" condition on seems to imply that any way of lifting a point along extends uniquely to a way of lifting a first-order infinitesimal arrow.
This should be a way of saying that the map gives a bijective map from each tangent space of to the corresponding tangent space of .
But by letting be an arbitrary square-free extension it seems we are generalizing this considerably.
The Stack Exchange answer says that is formally étale (resp. formally smooth, formally unramified) if for every square-zero extension of -algebras the natural map is bijective (resp. surjective, injective), and
Differential-geometrically, unramifiedness, smoothness and étaleness correspond to the tangent map of being injective, surjective and bijective, respectively. In particular, étale is the generalization to the algebraic case of the concept of local isomorphism.
Another answer says that a morphism of rings is etale iff:
1) The module of Kaehler differentials vanishes.
2) is flat as an -module.
3) is finitely presented as an -algebra.
I don't see why conditions 1) and 2) here are equivalent to condition A) in the other answer (if that's how it works).
I do know some stuff relating Kaehler differentials to square-zero stuff, but it would be really nice if
1) is equivalent to being injective (i.e. being formally unramified)
and
2) is equivalent to being surjective (i.e. being formally smooth).
Aha - Prop. 3.5 in Milne's Etale Cohomology seems to say that if is finitely presented as an -algebra, then 1) is indeed equivalent to being injective (i.e. being formally unramified). :tada:
So the question is about 2).
Here's the connection between Kaehler differentials and square-zero stuff. If we have a ring homomorphism , here is one way to define the module of relative Kaehler differentials .
We use to think of as an -module and let be the kernel of the multiplication map
Then we let
.
John Baez said:
So, the "formally etale" condition on seems to imply that any way of lifting a point along extends uniquely to a way of lifting a first-order infinitesimal arrow.
A more formal way if saying this might be via some kind "valuative criterion", or something analogous to one. Perhaps using a Weil algebra, as in the way people build models of synthetic differential geometry
I don't know what a "valuative criterion" is, but on good days I remember what a Weil algebra is. If I remember correctly, the infinitesimal arrow is a nice example of a Weil algebra over the (commutative) ring . But it's also a square-zero extension of since its an extension of rings whose kernel squares to zero: . The condition for a map to be formally etale involves an arbitrary square-zero extension of an arbitrary ring. So you're making me wonder: what's the difference between a Weil algebra over a ring and a square-zero extension of a commutative ring?
One huge difference seems to be that the Weil algebra is geometrically over the ring, i.e. equipped with a ring homomorphism from it, while the square-zero extension is geometrically 'under' that ring, i.e. equipped with a ring homomorphism to it.
I'm pretty confused since is both.
Oh, I guess this happens for any Weil algebra over any ring: we get maps both ways.
John Baez said:
I don't know what a "valuative criterion" is
https://stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/0BX4 it's basically formalizing exactly what you said above (e.g. the generic and specific point of the DVR, or the decapitated tangent vector, or (?) the Weil algebra).
There are other "elementary" ways of thinking of étale-ness too, e.g. with arithmetics (Hilbert: decomposing ideals, Artin: extending valuations), the points in that topos (the "henselian traits"), Jacobian criterion and inverse "function" theorem
Thanks! I'm scared that if I try to learn all those things I'll never finish. :upside_down: I'm really trying to understand etaleness in terms of separability and Kaehler differentials. So what I really want to know is a couple of things like:
Given a ring homomorphism , is being flat as an -module equivalent to being surjective (i.e. being formally smooth)?
This is the main question buried in my earlier text.
I was trying to see why this definition of being etale:
A) it is formally etale: if is a square-zero extension (meaning its kernel has ) then is a bijection.
B) is finitely presented as an -algebra.
is equivalent to this one:
1) The module of Kaehler differentials vanishes.
2) is flat as an -module.
3) is finitely presented as an -algebra.
3) is the same as B), and given either of these Milne says 1) is equivalent to half of A): that is, 1) is equivalent to being a injection.
So we'd be done if we could show that 2) is equivalent to being an injection, at least if the other conditions hold.
John Baez said:
Given a ring homomorphism $A \to B$, is $B$ being flat as an $A$-module equivalent to $\mathrm{Hom}_A(B, R') \to \mathrm{Hom}_{A}(B, R)$ being surjective (i.e. $f: A\to B$ being formally smooth)?.
Maybe by manipulating flatness (def: tensoring with a flat module is an exact functor) with the adjunction with hom?
I should try - thanks.
It's interesting how you managed to change all the double dollar signs in my text to single dollar signs while quoting it, thus making the LaTeX no longer work. That would seem to require effort.
John Baez said:
I should try - thanks.
It's interesting how you managed to change all the double dollar signs in my text to single dollar signs while quoting it, thus making the LaTeX no longer work. That would seem to require effort.
Probably zulip android has a bug, I didn't change anything (x
I figured something like that must be happening - I can't imagine you'd go to so much work to make sure none of my math symbols work. :upside_down:
John Baez said:
The easiest example is where is sent to zero.
The infinitesimal arrow is , yes?
@Simon Burton yes, I believe so.
@John Baez
I was thinking something along the lines as being explored in section 2 of these notes: https://websites.umich.edu/~viktorb/etale_summer2020/Notes/etalemaps.pdf Is it enough to ask for specific square-zero extensions, i.e. the sort you get from Weil algebras (I'm kinda guessing here). The definition of formally etale looks to me like a unique lifting property filling some kind of square, no?
One think that is true is that a map of rings is etale precisely when it is "standard etale" "at every prime". In scheme language, one can characterise etale maps of affince schemes if for a point in the domain and its image in the codomain, there is are affine neighbourhoods of both of them so that the maps restricts to a map of these neighbourhoods, and this map is "standard affine" https://stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/02GI (see also https://stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/0G1A)
Thinking about standard affine maps should be helpful in gaining intuition about how the algebra is supposed to reflect the topology, since they are built up in some very specific series of steps. And maybe one needs to consider specific special cases to built up intuition for even these! Say working over a field, to start, the second Stacks Project link above mentions generalising the example of a separable finite field extension.
Simon Burton said:
The infinitesimal arrow is , yes?
Yeah - that typo was all over, and I'll fix it. is just ! :rolling_on_the_floor_laughing:
David Michael Roberts said:
Simon Burton yes, I believe so.
John Baez
I was thinking something along the lines as being explored in section 2 of these notes: https://websites.umich.edu/~viktorb/etale_summer2020/Notes/etalemaps.pdf Is it enough to ask for specific square-zero extensions, i.e. the sort you get from Weil algebras (I'm kinda guessing here).
That would be cool - I don't know.
Note that the general square-zero extensions allow us to talk about lifting not just for points with first-order infinitesimal thickenings but arbitrary affine schemes with first-order infinitesimal thickenings. So I can map a big fat variety into the base, lift it to the total space, extend the map to the base to a first-order thickening, and etaleness will assure me that thickening has a unique lifting to the total space! It seems hard to achieve this level of generality by demanding a lifting property just for a limited supply of Weil algebras.
But maybe you can do a reduction of this sort:
David Michael Roberts said:
One think that is true is that a map of rings is etale precisely when it is "standard etale" "at every prime". In scheme language, one can characterise etale maps of affince schemes if for a point in the domain and its image in the codomain, there is are affine neighbourhoods of both of them so that the maps restricts to a map of these neighbourhoods, and this map is "standard affine" https://stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/02GI (see also https://stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/0G1A)
I guess one question is what sort of "point", or "prime", we're talking about here! If a "point" is any prime ideal, the points can be quite big and spread out. Anyway, I'll have to read about this stuff.
David Michael Roberts said:
The definition of formally etale looks to me like a unique lifting property filling some kind of square, no?
Yes, exactly. The only reason I didn't say it that way is that it's so annoying to draw diagrams here.
It's the usual sort of thing you expect from a covering space, like a unique path lifting property:
You've got your would-be etale map of schemes . We say is formally etale if whenever I choose any map coming from a square-zero extension, and any maps and making the resulting square commute, there always exists a unique making the whole resulting diagram commute.
If always exists we say is formally smooth. If is always unique we say is formally unramified. I'll admit I don't have a good geometrical sense for why these two concepts deserve to be called smooth and unramified.
I should look at a map of schemes that has what I'd call ramification, i.e. branch points.
if i'm not mistaken, one thing you might find useful in searching the literature is that your condition (A) is often expressed in terms of the functor of points (in this Zulip I guess people would say "Yoneda" instead)
I don't have an immediate answer, but my first reference to check would be the CRing project: http://math.uchicago.edu/~amathew/chetale.pdf
but I'm a bit lost with all the conversation above, so let me try distilling your question down: are you asking if " is flat and finite over implies that is formally smooth"?
if so, have a look at the proof of Theorem 3.9 in the CRing link above (which refers to Theorem 2.16 for the main argument)
I just had a leaf through EGA IV, because if a statement about étale things is true and classical enough then it's probably there, and is sort of is, but not in a way that I think will be particularly enlightening. Here's a rough idea of what happens there (and consequently probably, I guess, how it's argued in other classical references):
The proof of point (3), which is the one that you care about, is EGA IV.4 Proposition 17.15.15, but the proof of this is... arduous
But hey, the good news is that you can ignore all of the above and just look at some notes by Bhargav Bhatt: the theorem you're looking for is Theorem 4.9 in these notes.
Edit: these notes are nice and concise and don't require going down a rabbit hole of proofs citing other proofs, but it just feels wrong to not give the "correct" reference, which is what these notes turned into: Tag 025K in the Stacks project. They also tell us that the fact that these two definitions are indeed equivalent is known as the functorial characterisation of being étale (this is why I said "functor of points" above).
Tim Hosgood said:
but I'm a bit lost with all the conversation above, so let me try distilling your question down: are you asking if " is flat and finite over implies that is formally smooth"?
I was explaining a bunch of stuff I've just been learning, hence the bloated nature of my remarks, but in the process I bumped into that question. Actually I was asking "If is finite over , is it true that being flat is equivalent to being formally smooth?" But an implication either way is great, so thanks a million!
Even more actually...
John Baez said:
I was trying to see why this definition of being etale:
A) it is formally etale: if is a square-zero extension (meaning its kernel has ) then is a bijection.
B) is finitely presented as an -algebra.
is equivalent to this one:
1) The module of Kaehler differentials vanishes.
2) is flat as an -module.
3) is finitely presented as an -algebra.
3) is the same as B), and given either of these Milne says 1) is equivalent to half of A): that is, 1) is equivalent to being a injection.
So we'd be done if we could show that 2) is equivalent to being an injection, at least if the other conditions hold.
ok, then I think the Theorem 4.9 that I cite above actually does tell you (with some work in converting your condition (A) to the condition there, which looks slightly different but is, I think, equivalent) that these two things are equivalent!
GREAT! I will check it out. It may take a while, but I seem to be slowly getting pulled into trying to understand etale maps from various points of view.