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I'm trying to understand profinite groups in Galois theory and I'm thinking about an analogy from topology. Suppose is a compact connected manifold with a chosen basepoint . Are these 3 things all "the same", or are some more general?
1) Covering spaces where is compact.
2) Finite sets equipped with an action of .
3) Continuous actions of the profinite completion of on finite sets.
I think 1) and 2) are "the same". I.e. technically I think there's an equivalence of categories here. But less technically:
1) 2): every covering space with compact has finitely many sheets, so is finite and acts on it.
2) 1): given an action of on a finite set we can use the "fundamental theorem of covering spaces" to build a covering space such that with this action of on it. Since is a finite-sheeted covering space of a compact manifold it is compact.
But what I'm really wondering about is 2) 3).
In general I guess if we have a group , every continuous action of the profinite completion of on a finite set gives an action of on that finite set, but not vice versa. Right?
We've got a homomorphism , and an action of on a finite set extends along to a continuous action of on iff the action of factors through some finite quotient of . Right?
If this is right, we get 3) 2), in the sense that anything of type 3) gives us something of type 2). But we only get 2) 3) if every action of on a finite set factors through some finite quotient of .
Any group acting on a finite set S factors though a finite quotient, though....
..as has finite image.
Okay, good that's what I thought at first... so you're saying 2) 3) then?
For reason I got cold feet because this made the whole business of profinite groups looks sort of pointless.
But the situation is a bit different in Galois theory, I guess - since it's not true that every group action on a finite-dimensional vector space over a field factors through a finite quotient? (It does for a finite field , though, by your argument.)
I believe so.
You may like the paper https://arxiv.org/abs/math/0009145
Thanks! I'm really just trying to figure out some basic stuff so I can explain it well - like, why profinite groups show up in Galois theory.
I mean, I believe 2)<=>3)
It's too late here for me to think about the linear case.
But I note that a finite field extension is not just a finite dim vector space, but a fin dim algebra. Automorphisms are more constrained
Right.
You can take a minimal polynomial for the field extension, no? And then the autos of the field extension are related to the autos of the roots?
I believe the action of the absolute Galois group of on any finite extension factors through a finite quotient of , and it sounds like maybe you're agreeing with me.
In the covering space version you have the nice ones that are principal bundles, and every finite-sheeted covering space is an associated bundle to one of these.
So do you get an analogous construction with Galois extensions and arbitrary finite extensions?
Or is it more like having a transitive pi1 action on the fibre of the covering space, hence being a quotient of a principal bundle? I think it's this one. This is the same as being a connected compact covering space
Then an arbitrary compact covering space is a finite disjoint union of these.
Right.
Ultimately I'm trying to understand the "fundamental theorem of Grothendieck Galois theory", namely
Theorem - the category of commutative separable algebras over (= finite products of finite separable field extensions of ) is equivalent to the opposite of the category of continuous actions of the absolute Galois group (as a profinite group) on finite sets.
And now I'm trying to understand why you can't say it this "simpler" way:
Fake Theorem - the category of commutative separable algebras over (= finite products of finite separable field extensions of ) is equivalent to the opposite of the category of actions of the absolute Galois group on finite sets.
If this sounds too technical you might prefer
Theorem - the category of finite separable field extensions of is equivalent to the opposite of the category of continuous transitive actions of the absolute Galois group (as a profinite group) on finite sets.
This is analogous to thinking about connected covering spaces rather than general ones.
So general finite extensions are like a (blah) of extensions contained in Galois extensions. The amalgamation? Can't remember the word.
Just trying to give an argument why the field autos form a finite group
Actions of the Galois group on finite sets are all continuous, no?
Isn't every finite-index subgroup open?
Oh, it seems not automatically https://people.math.wisc.edu/~nboston/FLTJensen.pdf
Gotta sleep, might come back to this.
Isn't every finite-index subgroup [of a profinite group] open?
Right, this is a somewhat different thing to wonder about, but closely related: if this were true all actions of a profinite group on a finite set would be continuous, so saying "continuous" would be redundant. But it's not true.
(That article shows it's true for "topologically finitely generated groups", but the Galois group of is not finitely generated, and I don't see why it would be topologically finitely generated either.)
But in case anyone is getting lost, which would be very easy to do, I guess this is what I need to understand now:
Question 1: given a topological space , does every action of on a finite set extend to a continuous action of the profinite completion of on a finite set? If not, what's a counterexample?
Question 2: given a compact manifold , does every action of on a finite set extend to a continuous action of the profinite completion of on a finite set? If not, what's a counterexample?
Question 3: given a field , is every action of the absolute Galois group of (which is a profinite group) on a finite set continuous? If not, what's a counterexample?
I have opinions about these, but I'll just lay them out here.
The answer to question 1 is yes for abelian groups. For more general groups it may not be true, but for me this is because the completion is taken in the wrong category: the profinite completion replaces a group with the inverse limit of its finite quotients, but to get continuity of finite actions in general we need to take a limit indexed by the finite actions (these two things coincide in the abelian case). The result of the latter is a group with a profinite topology, and it's annoying that these don't coincide with profinite groups.
For question 2, the simplest example of a space with a non-abelian fundamental group is the wedge product of two circles, whose fundamental group is , but I have a hunch that this may be too nice to produce a counterexample. We can try though! I know the universal cover of that space is a 4-regular tree (I encountered it in a geometric group theory course) so we can figure it out with a little work.
For Question 3 I similarly suspect the answer is no, but you'll need a number theorist to provide a counterexample :sweat_smile:
Thanks!
1) Is every finite-index normal subgroup of a profinite group open?
2) To get a finite-index subgroup that's not open, does it suffice to find a finite-index subgroup such that the normal subgroup
does not have finite index?
(I'm proceeding completely by instinct here; I haven't checked this yet.)
The thing that's missing from this conversation is the definition of the profinite topology on the absolute Galois group.
It's very much not the profinite completion of a discrete group.
I could imagine the open subgroups are precisely those that stabilise some finite field extension!
Ah if that's the case then there will be no conflict, great!
David Michael Roberts said:
The thing that's missing from this conversation is the definition of the profinite topology on the absolute Galois group.
It's very much not the profinite completion of a discrete group.
I could imagine the open subgroups are precisely those that stabilise some finite field extension!
Aaron Starr said something to this effect on the n-Cafe:
Also, by the definition of the Krull topology on the absolute Galois group, every finite index subgroup is open.
I don't understand that remark yet. But if it's true, does this mean the word "continuous" is redundant in all these quotes?
Carboni says this:
Recalling the fundamental theorem of Grothendieck Galois Theory that the dual category of the category of commutative separable algebras over a field is equivalent to the topos of continuous representations in finite sets of the profinite fundamental group of , the natural question arises of giving an abstract proof of such a theorem.
Lastaria says this in his paper "Separable algebras in Grothendieck Galois theory":
Theorem 2.1. (Grothendieck). There is an equivalence of categories
between the dual of the category of separable -algebras over a field and the category of continuous actions on finite sets of the profinite Galois group of a separable closure of .
And a questioner on MathOverflow said this:
I've been learning about Grothendieck's Galois theory, and I just haven't been able to understand the fundamental theorem properly. Let's phrase the fundamental theorem in the case of fields:
Let be a field, and its separable closure. There is an anti-equivalence between the category of finite separable -algebras and the category of finite sets equipped with a continuous Gal()-action. Under this equivalence, separable field extensions of correspond to sets with a transitive action, and Galois extensions of correspond to finite quotients of Gal().
While lacking absolute confidence, my answer is yes, continuity is redundant in these contexts once one has restricted to actions on finite sets. The reason why continuity is mentioned is that the category of continuous actions on arbitrary sets is generated by these finite actions: any continuous action of the Galois group is such that each finite subset of elements generates a finite subset. But the topology is defined precisely to make all of the finite actions continuous, so it's redundant!
Well, it seems we have an interesting situation: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1256911/why-is-gal-omega-k-a-topological-group-under-the-krull-topology?rq=1 the filter of open subgroups of Gal(k) in the Krull topology is generated by the subgroups fixing finite Galois extensions of k. If every finite extension is contains in a finite Galois extension, then this is saying that open subgroups are those that merely fix a finite extension of k, not necessarily Galois. This feels close to what I was saying.
Saying that every finite-index subgroup is open then implies that every finite-index subgroup is the stabiliser of some finite extension, no? Can we see this algebraically?
Let be a profinite group where every finite-index subgroup is open and a finite set. Then a homomorphism (not necc. cts for the discrete topology on the codomain) has kernel of finite index, which means that must be continuous.
Oh, I'm being silly. A Galois extension is precisely a field extension corresponding to a subgroup of Gal(k). And of course the statement of Galois theory is that the lattice of intermediate subgroups of a Galois group Gal(K|k) is precisely the lattice of intermediate fields between k and K.
So now I understand Jason's comment on the n-Lab.
You mean on the n-Category Cafe?
Morgan Rogers (he/him) said:
While lacking absolute confidence, my answer is yes, continuity is redundant in these contexts once one has restricted to actions on finite sets.
Meanwhile David Speyer says Gal() has a discontinuous action on a 2 element set.
So I'm pretty confused... also because I was talking about Gal(), not Gal().
In characteristic 0, all field extensions are separable so it makes no difference.
@John Baez yes, silly me
@Reid Barton yes, silly me
Okay, I'm now pretty sure that the absolute Galois group of has a discontinuous action on a 2-element set! Following Milne I give the argument here.
One interesting thing, pointed out by James Borger and also Milne, is that to get this discontinuous action we use the axiom of choice!
James Borger has also referred to Galois groups as pro-finite groups, but this time as formal pro-objects rather than limits in spaces! I'm sure there is a standard, reassuring result guaranteeing that these different notions of profinite can be safely conflated, but I don't know where to find it...
I'm pretty sure that the category of pro-objects in finite sets is equivalent to the category of topological spaces that are cofiltered limits of finite discrete spaces. I was confused because I thought I heard someone earlier in this thread contradict that, but the nLab agrees with me at [[profinite space]]. It's not true for more general [[pro-sets]], but I think it is for finite ones.
Thanks Mike! The problem I pointed out is that the finite coset actions of a group need not themselves be groups, so there is no guarantee a priori that the topology making these continuous will make a profinite group. Or so I thought, but there is a characterization of profinite groups as compact totally disconnected groups which does the trick (it's pointed out in a quote that John shared on the same n-cat-café page).
Ah, so the question is about bridging the gap between pro-objects in finite groups and group objects in profinite sets?
Borger said something interesting about these issues.
By the way, I don't think the real meat of Milne's example requires anything about Galois theory; it amounts to taking an infinite product of copies of , giving it the sort of obvious profinite topology, and finding an index-2 subgroup that is not open. Since we can think of this infinite product as a vector space over , and an index-2 subgroup is just a codimension-1 vector subspace, this amounts to a puzzle in "profinite vector spaces".