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It seems to be folklore that Johnstone's topological topos validates Brouwer's "continuity principle" that every function is continuous. In fact, it might validate more: that for every pair of spaces, all maps between them are continuous.
Does anyone have a reference for this? Maybe it's not hard to prove directly, in which case I'd also be interested in just seeing a proof here.
Thanks in advance ^_^
Actually, it wasn't as annoying as I expected to just prove it... I think, haha. I'll try to remember to post a proof here tomorrow if nobody beats me to it. Of course, I would still be interested in a reference that's already in the literature!
Chris Grossack (they/them) said:
for every pair of spaces, all maps between them are continuous.
What do you mean by space, map and continuous?
in particular, are you looking for an internal or external statement?
If an external statement, this is basically Proposition 4.4 of Johnstone's original paper (together with Lemma 2.1 to identify sequential topological spaces with a full subcategory of the topological topos).
I want an internal statement, in the sense of Mac Lane and Moerdijk VI.9, but I'm pretty sure their construction doesn't work for the topological topos. Unless there's another site I'm unaware of (there could easily be)
I was able to prove it for functions from the reals to the reals (and I've written it in full. It'll be in an upcoming blog post) but I'm still curious if you can say something for other spaces
If you want an internal statement, then you have to say what you mean by "other spaces". It's certainly not true internally in any topos that "every function between two topological spaces is continuous" if "topological space" is also defined internally in an ordinary explicit way, e.g. using open sets.
Right, there is also the internal statement that every function from the reals to the reals is continuous in the - sense, and we can make up some analogous statements for e.g. , but it's not clear what "continuity" would mean for a general object.
Understanding what one might mean by this is part of what I'm looking for
For instance, if is the sierpinski space, then is an internal representation of the lattice of opens. But this is "too easy" because then just pullback gives you the claim. In fact, maybe that's what people mean. It's certainly simple enough to not require a proof
Who are the "people"?
There is a subject called synthetic topology where you postulate an "open subobject/proposition classifier" and this induces a sort of internal topology on each object with respect to which all functions are automatically continuous, just like you say.
But this is a different thing from Brouwer's Principle about functions from the reals to the reals, which doesn't depend on any extra postulated constants like , but instead is based on the traditional definition of the topology of the real numbers (in terms of open intervals).
The reference I'm able to find quickly is Jem's answer here, which is only for complete metric spaces. I understand this case since we can ask for the - definition to be true, and probably some version of the argument works in this setting.
That said, I'm sure that I've seen the claim made for "spaces" more broadly, but I don't have a reference on hand. Maybe someone was speaking imprecisely, or maybe they were just mistaken. Or maybe some statement of this form is true, but I don't know what that statement is. I'm not sure
I would guess that the only statements like this that are going to be true are those that use a synthetic notion of space, as Reid mentioned, and those with some completeness and separation conditions, as in the answer you linked to.
@Chris Grossack (they/them) Are you aware of Davorin Lešnik‘s thesis (https://arxiv.org/pdf/2104.10399.pdf). It shows what you are looking for, for "other spaces" = complete metric spaces, and for different topoi.