You're reading the public-facing archive of the Category Theory Zulip server.
To join the server you need an invite. Anybody can get an invite by contacting Matteo Capucci at name dot surname at gmail dot com.
For all things related to this archive refer to the same person.
Since subobject lattices for objects in a topos are frames, I often think of them as behaving like open sets. This leads me to expect (by analogy with the product topology) that a subobject of a product of objects in a topos should be a union of products of subobjects of and . Since it seems like a fun problem, I thought I would post it here before thinking too hard about whether or not this is true.
In a topos of sheaves over a space I bet we can use the equivalence with the category of local homeomorphisms over to deduce that this must be the case (or maybe this will provide a counterexample?). But if so does the result work more generally?
Probably in the internal logic this is a quick argument, but I didn't put any thought into it.
It's not true for -sets. For example, regarding as a -set under left multiplication, has a lot more subobjects than .
David Michael Roberts said:
Probably in the internal logic this is a quick argument, but I didn't put any thought into it.
That perspective actually makes me lean towards it being false. If I take a signature with two sorts and a binary relation , the classifying topos for the empty theory on that signature might be a counterexample: we would need to be able to prove in the empty theory that is a union of subrelations of a particular form, and I don't think any such decomposition is provable.
Reid Barton said:
It's not true for -sets. For example, regarding as a -set under left multiplication, has a lot more subobjects than .
Ah great, this should have been the first place I looked.
Reid Barton said:
It's not true for -sets. For example, regarding as a -set under left multiplication, has a lot more subobjects than .
what do you mean by "a lot more"? Since you can have arbitrary unions of products of subobjects, I don't immediately see a contradiction. I guess the diagonal subobject is the counterexample though
As in has only two subobjects as a -set (one of which is empty); there are only subobjects expressible as a union of products of subobjects of !
While meanwhile the subobjects of as a left -set are in bijection with subsets of , where the subset corresponds to
However, it is true internally in any topos, by the same argument that makes it true in the category of sets: for we have . So this is a case where the internal statement is very different from the external one.