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There are a few notions of internal finiteness in a topos (or indeed in a more general category). The most widespread seems to be Kuratowski-finiteness (K-finiteness from here on). Here's a problem I'm wrestling with.
In Sketches of an Elephant, Johnstone often argues that conditions involving finite limits or colimits are elementary, so make sense anywhere; it's only once we pass to "infinite" limits or colimits that we need to worry about indexing (indexed categories, indexed adjoints, indexed completeness...) In particular, inverse image functors of geometric morphisms are required to preserve finite limits in this elementary sense.
However, in a typical topos there are "non-trivial" finite objects: objects which aren't just finite coproducts of copies of the terminal object, and hence there can be more finite internal categories which can serve to index diagrams and hence limits. What I mean by this is that, taking this topos as a base, by 'pulling back' (applying inverse image functors) these finite categories in can be used to index internal diagrams in toposes over . If I have a geometric morphism over , is it really the case that the inverse image preserving finite limits in the elementary sense ensures that these internal limits are preserved?
As a contrasting case, a geometric morphism is tidy if the direct image of its slice over any object of preserves internal filtered colimits. This is definitely not the same as these direct images just preserving filtered colimits in general; in fact it is much weaker, because it seems we can construct geometric morphisms which do that but fail to even be proper (so that the sliced geometric morphisms preserve -indexed filtered colimits of subterminal objects). Yet the definition of filtered colimit is almost as elementary as the definition of finiteness!
It's possible my supposed example is wrong (I can describe it properly if anyone is dubious), but what I really want to know is: how far removed can internal finiteness be from external/"elementary" finiteness?
it's interesting that you'd say that k-finiteness is the most widespread given that bishop-finiteness is the most common thing i see "finite" meaning when working internally to constructive math :o
also, i'm not very well-equipped to answer your question in general, but i do wanna ask: what kind of constraints do you have in mind as to what sort topos you have? are you thinking only of grothendieck topoi here, say?
I think it is true that K-finiteness is what is traditionally meant by "finite" and my sense is that it's a historical accident, probably related to, in commutative algebra, "finitely generated module" coming prior to "finitely presented module" (it being a more obvious notion if you phrase it in terms of elements, and good enough if you only work with Noetherian rings, and a lot of rings of interest are Noetherian).
I'm sure that "finite (co)product" internally ought to be interpreted as finite in the Bishop sense, though.
Otherwise you cannot reduce them to binary and nullary ones, I think.
just as an example
hmm, i dont know about tradition :shrug: off the top of my head, the nlab page https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/finite+set defines plain "finite" as bishop-finite, and the coq stdpp library defines Finite
like this
Class Finite A `{EqDecision A} := {
enum : list A;
(* [NoDup] makes it easy to define the cardinality of the type. *)
NoDup_enum : NoDup enum;
elem_of_enum x : x ∈ enum
}.
(which is equivalent to bishop-finite)
Sorry for not replying yesterday (now I'll have to wait for you both to come online again oops)
sarahzrf said:
it's interesting that you'd say that k-finiteness is the most widespread given that bishop-finiteness is the most common thing i see "finite" meaning when working internally to constructive math :o
Similarly interesting that there are separate nLab pages for finite object and finite set and Bishop's name doesn't feature in the former, although the concept of Bishop-finiteness does. For me personally, the definition as the internal version of "is in bijection with " feels too restrictive, but that's a vague argument.
An alternative is that K-finiteness coincides with internal compactness: from Proposition 3.4 on the finite object page, an object in is K-finite iff is a proper geometric morphism (so is compact as a topos over ). But this is only not circular because there is an equivalent characterisation of proper geometric morphisms in terms of Beck-Chevalley conditions.
sarahzrf said:
also, i'm not very well-equipped to answer your question in general, but i do wanna ask: what kind of constraints do you have in mind as to what sort topos you have? are you thinking only of grothendieck topoi here, say?
I'm actually curious about whether that matters. Is "finite limit/colimit" a consistent internal/external concept in Grothendieck toposes but not some other toposes?
Morgan Rogers said:
An alternative is that K-finiteness coincides with internal compactness: from Proposition 3.4 on the finite object page, an object in is K-finite iff is a proper geometric morphism (so is compact as a topos over ).
At proper geometric morphism there's an expanded version of the statement which includes the addendum: is tidy (i.e., is strongly compact as a topos over ) if and only if is also decidable (i.e., Bishop finite).
That's really nice, I hadn't spotted that :big_smile: I have since spotted this, though:
If filtered category means admitting cocones of every Bishop-finite diagram, then a set is Bishop-finite iff it is a finitely presented object in Set and it is Kuratowski-finite iff it is a finitely generated object in Set,
which partially answers my question about the kind of filteredness that's used in the definition of proper/tidy morphisms. The main question remains, though... do both kinds of internal finiteness in gives limits which inverse images of geometric morphisms (over , say, so that indexing over them makes sense) respect?
My hunch is that you need B-finiteness, though that is based on very little. It's possible that K-finiteness is enough: for instance, perhaps every K-finite diagram has a cofinal functor from a B-finite diagram?
Morgan Rogers said:
sarahzrf said:
also, i'm not very well-equipped to answer your question in general, but i do wanna ask: what kind of constraints do you have in mind as to what sort topos you have? are you thinking only of grothendieck topoi here, say?
I'm actually curious about whether that matters. Is "finite limit/colimit" a consistent internal/external concept in Grothendieck toposes but not some other toposes?
well, for example, not every elementary topos has an nno (FinSet doesn't!)
so i'm not sure you can even define finiteness in a plain elementary topos, in which case grothendieck topos mightve been a reasonable assumption to make about your question
but if you didn't mean that, then...? just also an nno, or what
also, re "An alternative is that K-finiteness coincides with internal compactness"—perhaps, but "finite" sounds stronger to me than "compact"—although maybe that's just circular, since i'm used to thinking of "finite" as meaning b-finite :)
sarahzrf said:
Morgan Rogers said:
sarahzrf said:
also, i'm not very well-equipped to answer your question in general, but i do wanna ask: what kind of constraints do you have in mind as to what sort topos you have? are you thinking only of grothendieck topoi here, say?
I'm actually curious about whether that matters. Is "finite limit/colimit" a consistent internal/external concept in Grothendieck toposes but not some other toposes?
well, for example, not every elementary topos has an nno (FinSet doesn't!)
There's an equivalent characterisation on the finite set page which uses power objects rather than a nno, so that works in any topos :shrug:
oh really :eyes:
(although it is a bit worse to work with, so I'm happy to assume the presence of a natural number object if it would simplify things)
oops!
in my defense, it's very impredicative :>
yeah ok maybe i shouldn't've butted in on this issue :zip_it:
To be clear, I'm not looking for a "right" definition of finiteness; I'm happy to be presented with a bouquet of them. :bouquet: I just want to figure out how internal and external/elementary concepts of finiteness relate to one another.
its a goddamn mess is how
is what i can only assume.
given that all subsingletons are subfinite
In constructive mathematics, Bishop-finiteness is almost always what you want to mean by unadorned "finite". However, note that when interpreted in a topos this refers to internal Bishop-finiteness, which is more general than the "external" sense (the latter is I believe what the Elephant calls a "finite cardinal"). In some cases the distinction doesn't matter, but when it does it's almost always B-finiteness that you want.
As for the original question, I believe the answer is yes, because you can prove both internally and externally that preserving "finite limits" is equivalent to preserving pullbacks and the terminal object, hence both kinds of preservation are equivalent to each other.
by 'the "external" sense', do you mean something which is an external b-finite coproduct of 1s?
I mean something that is a classified by a global element of the NNO (what the Elephant calls a "finite cardinal").
ah, so that's actually weaker than what i said, right?
Mike Shulman said:
As for the original question, I believe the answer is yes, because you can prove both internally and externally that preserving "finite limits" is equivalent to preserving pullbacks and the terminal object, hence both kinds of preservation are equivalent to each other.
That would be a relief, I hope you're right. I need to finish having a good read of section D5.2 in the Elephant before I come back with questions; I didn't realise when I first posted this how nuanced finiteness would be.
sarahzrf said:
ah, so that's actually weaker than what i said, right?
Yes. For instance, in , is a finite cardinal, but not an externally-finitely-indexed coproduct of copies of 1.
I realize I was too hasty earlier in suggesting that products over B-finite sets could be reduced to terminal objects and binary products. After seeing https://github.com/b-mehta/topos/issues/22, I've realized there's a problem with trying to apply the usual construction, because you have to pick an order to build the product in and different orders may produce different (though of course isomorphic) objects. It seems the best that you can conclude is that there is a "weakly contractible" category of products, or that there is a product anafunctor.
In section A.1.2 of the Elephant (which claims to work without choice by default) there is the usual list of equivalent formulations of "the category C has finite limits", but the proof is simply "See any good textbook on category theory" and there is no discussion about what "finite" might mean.
Despite the fact that the very next paragraph is careful to explain that "C has such-and-such limits" is intended to mean that one has selected a limit for each diagram of the kind in question, so as to avoid requiring choice to construct a family of limits.
In HoTT and using univalent categories I think you could fix this, although I don't see this construction in UniMath.
Ah, a good point. Yes, univalence should solve that problem nicely, but I think you're right that in a constructive set-theoretic metatheory you'll only get a product anafunctor. Perhaps by "finite" Johnstone intended to mean a set equipped with a bijection to , i.e. an ordering?
I guess it must be. I tried reading the next few sections but I didn't come across any case where this distinction would matter.
@Reid Barton https://hub.darcs.net/dolio/agda-share/browse/cubical/GroupoidProduct.agda
Technically that isn't the product definition part, just the part that fixes the issue (I think). But I think the premises there are reasonable expectations of how you construct finite products from binary products and a terminal object.
I see, right. I was imagining some higher-level argument along the lines of "univalent categories see weak equivalences of categories as equivalences", applied to {sets equipped with a bijection to some fin n} -> {sets which merely admit a bijection to some fin n}, but I don't know if that really works.
Perhaps it does, but it is a lot more work to develop all that. :slight_smile:
It was already difficult to figure out what I did do.
Reid Barton said:
I see, right. I was imagining some higher-level argument along the lines of "univalent categories see weak equivalences of categories as equivalences", applied to {sets equipped with a bijection to some fin n} -> {sets which merely admit a bijection to some fin n}, but I don't know if that really works.
Maybe I misunderstand what you mean, but {sets equipped with a bijection to some fin n} is not a univalent category.
Right, I'm thinking of univalent categories as some kind of local objects in all categories.
Ah, I see, you're saying that it induces an equivalence of the exponentials.