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I was reading about how a map from a set can induce a map from a suitable quotient of that set. I'm wondering if this situation can be generalized to a statement about equivalent categories.
My (short) question is at the end, preceded by some (longer) motivation.
As the motivating example (following Jacobson's "Basic Algebra I"), let be a set and let be an equivalence relationship on . Let be a function to a set that is compatible with , in the sense that if any and in are equivalent under then . We then define a map which sends to its equivalence class under the equivalence relationship . Given and , I believe there is then a unique so that . This map sends an equivalence class to the value , and this is well-defined because if then .
I believe that the set together with the equivalence relationship induces a groupoid. The objects of the groupoid are the elements of , and there is a morphism from to if is equivalent to under . I'll refer to this induced category as . We can also view as a discrete category, where the objects are the elements of . Then a functor is a function from the set to the set such that if there is a morphism , then . So, a function that is compatible with an equivalence relationship on corresponds to a functor .
We can also view as a discrete category. I think and are equivalent categories, with and some inclusion functor (which sends each equivalence class to an element in that equivalence class) providing an equivalence.
So, I think the situation is as follows. We have a functor , and a category which is equivalent to by an equivalence with data and . Then there is a unique functor so that . I am wondering if this situation generalizes.
My question is this: If and is an equivalence of categories, and is a functor, is there a unique so that , or at least ? My guess is the answer is "yes", with , but I don't understand the algebra for manipulating equivalences well enough to prove this yet.
Everything you said about sets and equivalence relations sounds correct! And before getting into your question, I want to say that a lot of what you did generalizes from to other sufficiently nice categories. I believe any [[regular category]] will be good enough.
Let me list some examples, since the general definition is a bit scary! Examples of regular categories include the category of groups or abelian groups or vector spaces or graphs (defined the way category theorists define graphs, aka [[quivers]]).
We can define and work with equivalence relations in any regular category ! An equivalence relation on is a special sort of groupoid internal to - so instead of getting groupoids from equivalence relations the way you just did, we define an equivalence relation to be a special sort of groupoid - but living in , not .
In any regular category, given an object with an equivalence relation on it, we can get a new object .
Furthermore, in any regular category, a morphism determines an equivalence relation on . The naive idea is that elements of that get mapped by to the same element of are equivalent. But we are able to express this idea without mentioning "elements"!
Then we can form the quotient object , and becomes equal to the composite of two morphisms:
The naive idea is that first we scrunch down elements of that map to the same element of , and then we map them to . This idea is made precise here.
TL;DR: while you are interested in connecting equivalence relations on sets to category theory, there is also something else people like to do: generalize the theory of equivalence relations from to other categories!
Okay, now your actual question:
David Egolf said:
My question is this: If and is an equivalence of categories, and is a functor, is there a unique so that , or at least ? My guess is the answer is "yes", with , but I don't understand the algebra for manipulating equivalences well enough to prove this yet.
A functor with may not exist. Find a counterexample where all the categories involved have at most 2 objects!
This is just an example of a general lesson: equations between functors are evil; natural isomorphisms are better.
Morality aside, if you are working with equivalences, which are wisely not defined using equations between functors, you will have trouble getting equations to work.
A functor with does exist, and you guessed what it could be: . Check that this works!
(This equation is not evil since I'm defining this way! [[Definitional equality]] is okay.)
But a functor with is typically not unique. Morally, that's because uniqueness here would be stating an equation between functors, and that's evil. But it's good to find a small counterexample.
But this is okay, since a functor with is unique up to natural isomorphism.
Awesome, thanks for your very interesting response! When I have energy, I'll have to take a look at several of the things you've mentioned, and type up something about them in this thread.
John Baez said:
A functor with may not exist. Find a counterexample where all the categories involved have at most 2 objects!
Let be a category with two isomorphic objects and the minimum of morphisms, and let be category with a single object and just its identity morphism. and are equivalent. Now let . We have a functor from to (the identity functor) that has two objects in its image. However, there is only one object in so there can be no functor so that for some that is part of an equivalence of and .
It's interesting to notice that we can add or delete objects from an isomorphism class of objects and still obtain an equivalent category.
John Baez said:
A functor with does exist, and you guessed what it could be: . Check that this works!
Let . Then .
And this is where I get stuck. I know that , so what I want to say next is that .
I'm guessing that for functors in general if then . I'll have to draw some commutative squares for natural isomorphisms and see if I can check this, though!
David Egolf said:
It's interesting to notice that we can add or delete objects from an isomorphism class of objects and still obtain an equivalent category.
Yes. In fact that's the only way to get equivalent categories.
David Egolf said:
I'm guessing that for functors in general if then . I'll have to draw some commutative squares for natural isomorphisms and see if I can check this, though!
This is definitely a good thing to show! Here's one way to approach it: if you have functors , a natural transformation , and a functor you can cook up a natural transformation
This trick is called [[whiskering]] and you can show it obeys
Here I'm using plain old juxtaposition to denote composition of natural transformations.
I hope you see why this implies what you're trying to show now.
After you learn how to compose functors and how to compose natural transformations, the next thing to study is whiskering of functors by natural transformations, and the rules obeyed by whiskering. Above I'm talking about "right whiskering", but there's also "left whiskering". Once you have all this material under control you'll be able to do a lot with functors and natural transformations!
John Baez said:
We can define and work with equivalence relations in any regular category ! An equivalence relation on is a special sort of groupoid internal to - so instead of getting groupoids from equivalence relations the way you just did, we define an equivalence relation to be a special sort of groupoid - but living in , not .
In any regular category, given an object with an equivalence relation on it, we can get a new object .
Furthermore, in any regular category, a morphism determines an equivalence relation on . The naive idea is that elements of that get mapped by to the same element of are equivalent. But we are able to express this idea without mentioning "elements"!
Then we can form the quotient object , and becomes equal to the composite of two morphisms:
So, the precise conditions on the category here are a bit confusing.
Essentially, a regular category is one that has well-behaved "image factorizations" , which in particular entails that the intermediate object is the quotient of the kernel pair of the morphism. But it may not have quotients of arbitrary equivalence relations that don't arise as the kernel pair of anything.
John Baez said:
David Egolf said:
I'm guessing that for functors in general if then . I'll have to draw some commutative squares for natural isomorphisms and see if I can check this, though!
This is definitely a good thing to show! Here's one way to approach it: if you have functors , a natural transformation , and a functor you can cook up a natural transformation
This trick is called [[whiskering]] and you can show it obeys
Here I'm using plain old juxtaposition to denote composition of natural transformations.
Assuming that these categories are small categories, so that they are objects in the strict 2-category , we have a notion of horizontal composition of natural transformations available to us. I tried setting as where is the identity natural transformation from to , denotes horizontal composition, and denotes vertical composition. Then I think I was able to show that is implied by the fact that horizontal composition is a functor. (I think this is a special case of the interchange law).
Now we want to show that if then . Since and are naturally isomorphic, there is an isomorphism with an inverse . If we use the interchange law (or what we just figured out about whiskering) we see that . Using the functoriality of horizontal composition, we find that . That's half of what we need to do to show that . The other half should follow analogously by composing after .
Horizontal composition has always scared me. So it's good to start getting over that fear a bit. It seems very useful!
Yes, all this looks good!
When you understand the rules governing horizontal and vertical composition of natural transformations - there aren't many! - and the rules governing whiskering - which is a special case! - then you're really up and running when it comes to dealing with .
(Your remarks about small categories is not really relevant here; all this stuff works for large categories too, you just have to pay the cops a bribe to let you do it.)