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In Mike Shulman's expository paper about linear logic, he defines 'affine triposes' as follows:
affine-tripos.png
I have two questions regarding this
Seems a question worth cc'ing @Mike Shulman on :)
Uh, definitely :blush:
Re 1, there's only one remaining occurrence of "cartesian", in the assumption that is cartesian closed. If were only monoidal closed, there would be no "product projections" with respect to which to formulate the third bullet point. One could imagine taking to be only semicartesian, but I didn't feel like going down that rabbit hole. In particular, usually in first-order linear/affine logic the quantifiers are regarded as wholly additive, which suggests that the base category should be cartesian monoidal.
Re 2, I thought about that a bit, but wasn't able to make sense of it. There is a construction of a category of what you might call "affine sets", but it doesn't carry all the information of the original affine tripos, and in particular there's no obvious sense in which the affine predicates are incarnated as "subobjects" in it.
Mike Shulman said:
Re 1, there's only one remaining occurrence of "cartesian", in the assumption that is cartesian closed. If were only monoidal closed, there would be no "product projections" with respect to which to formulate the third bullet point. One could imagine taking to be only semicartesian, but I didn't feel like going down that rabbit hole. In particular, usually in first-order linear/affine logic the quantifiers are regarded as wholly additive, which suggests that the base category should be cartesian monoidal.
I see, indeed I was thinking too that the most you can do is semicartesian with such a definition. On the other hand, (3) could be replaced with a more agnostic requirement that every map has both adjoints (perhaps forming a Wirthmuller context?).
Also, one could go the fibrational way and define an affine tripos to be some suitable notion of monoidal fibration with a power object (mimicking, for example, the definition in Chapter 2 here). I don't know/remember enough linear logic to understand whether this is sensible or not, though.
Mike Shulman said:
Re 2, I thought about that a bit, but wasn't able to make sense of it. There is a construction of a category of what you might call "affine sets", but it doesn't carry all the information of the original affine tripos, and in particular there's no obvious sense in which the affine predicates are incarnated as "subobjects" in it.
Ah, I see. This is a more interesting issue.
Matteo Capucci (he/him) said:
Mike Shulman said:
Re 2, I thought about that a bit, but wasn't able to make sense of it. There is a construction of a category of what you might call "affine sets", but it doesn't carry all the information of the original affine tripos, and in particular there's no obvious sense in which the affine predicates are incarnated as "subobjects" in it.
Ah, I see. This is a more interesting issue.
Forgive me if I continue speculating, could it help to enrich such a category in itself?
It seems to me there's a mismatch between the 'external' non-linear logic of sets and the 'internal' linear logic we are trying to house.
BTW, I'm actually revising this paper at the very moment, so if there's something interesting to say here I might incorporate it. In particular, in response to referee comments I'm generalizing the semantic context to deal with intuitionistic and affine hyperdoctrines rather than just triposes, where the fiber categories may not be posets and there may not be a generic predicate. Also, the "standard interpretation" is being renamed the "antithesis translation".
For the purposes of this paper I'm not hugely interested in generalizing to semicartesian , since the main point is to study the antithesis translation applied to intuitionistic logic, and this always starts with a cartesian and preserves it. However, if there's something interesting and not too difficult to say, it might be worth mentioning.
Matteo Capucci (he/him) said:
On the other hand, (3) could be replaced with a more agnostic requirement that every map has both adjoints.
A problem with this is how do you formulate a Beck-Chevalley condition? In the cartesian case, the BC condition for adjoints of an arbitrary refers to arbitrary pullback squares. When restricted to product projections this is sensible, since the pullback of a product projection is a product projection. And the product projection version generalizes to the semicartesian case directly, but the squares in question are no longer pullbacks. But in a noncartesian case with adjoints for non-projections, which squares should satisfy the BC condition?
could it help to enrich such a category in itself?
why might it?
Mike Shulman said:
Matteo Capucci (he/him) said:
On the other hand, (3) could be replaced with a more agnostic requirement that every map has both adjoints.
A problem with this is how do you formulate a Beck-Chevalley condition? In the cartesian case, the BC condition for adjoints of an arbitrary refers to arbitrary pullback squares. When restricted to product projections this is sensible, since the pullback of a product projection is a product projection. And the product projection version generalizes to the semicartesian case directly, but the squares in question are no longer pullbacks. But in a noncartesian case with adjoints for non-projections, which squares should satisfy the BC condition?
I think BC would be replaced by the conditions imposed on the adjoint triple by the definition of Wirthmuller context. At least, this nlab article seems to be hinting at that.
If I recall correctly, the fact is strong monoidal is equivalent to ask directly for the Frobenius identity, which is one of the ways BC is useful to have for hyperdoctrines if I'm not mistaken.
Mike Shulman said:
could it help to enrich such a category in itself?
why might it?
That was a shot in the dark... Feel free to ignore it.
BC conditions are about relating the -adjunctions for different 's.