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Here's a proof that invertible fractional ideals are projective, and if you follow the links you can learn what all the words in that statement mean:
I would like to see a more category-theoretic proof.
The idea seems to be this... I could easily screw up here...
If you have a commutative ring that's an integral domain, you can form its field of fractions . Since it contains as a subring, becomes an -module, and any submodule of this is called a fractional ideal of . These are really important in number theory.
The set of fractional ideals of becomes a monoid because given two fractional ideals we can define a new one
Q1: Is this isomorphic to the tensor product of and as -modules?
We say a fractional ideal of is invertible if there's a fractional ideal with
where is the fractional ideal that's itself.
Q2: Why are invertible fractional ideals projective as -modules?
I'm hoping there's some explanation like this: for any commutative ring we can take the tensor product of -modules so becomes a symmetric monoidal category. This lets us define an invertible -module to be one for which there's a module with
where is the unit for the tensor product, namely itself viewed as an -module. I'm hoping that any invertible -module is projective!
Q3: If is a commutative ring, is any invertible -module projective?
If so, I'm hoping there's some rather simple category-flavored proof.
Q4: Can we use the hoped-for fact that invertible -modules are projective to show that invertible fractional ideals are projective?
An affirmative answer to Q1 should make this possible.
Oh, I get the answer to Q3. Yes, because any -module with a dual is projective (see the Corollary here for a proof of that), and in any symmetric monoidal category an inverse of an object is a dual of that object.