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I would love if someone could discuss this with me.
For a model of financial trading, I have the following sets:
We can express who owns how much of what and when, with a relation: .
However, if it would be easier to have temporal intervals, I think the power set of Time reflects the set of all possible temporal intervals or collections of temporal moments.
Does anyone think it would make more sense to define Intervals as I think "connected" sets, in this context? (I mean continuous intervals like and not unions of subsets like ). (It's worth considering that every currency has a finite quantity in circulation, and any unit of that currency cannot be owned by two people at the same time, in this model, for now.)
Does that set of temporal intervals have a universal property? I mean if there is a categorical relationship between a set of temporal moments and a set of temporal intervals. My guess is that the latter is a topology on the former, so I wonder if there is a "categorical" or "internal" definition of a topology on an object.
I am also thinking about the universal property of the power set. I'm gonna have to process this:
exponentialObject.png
I am also wondering, if I design a satisfactory model of the above in the category of sets, and recognize how the sets relate to each other categorically, are there benefits to swapping the underlying category but keeping the same categorical structure? Rumy Tuyeras suggested I work in a category of monoids. What happens if I design the model in the category of sets, identify the universal properties of the objects, and then switch the underlying category to the category of monoids?
Thanks.
Let me attempt to process the diagram of the universal property of exponential objects.
is a variable ("For any object in ...").
is a "distinguished object", in the sense that we require it have certain properties, for the rest of the definition to follow; which is that includes all binary products "with ". I think this means both and .
I wonder what the significance is of a category with all binary products for a single object, rather than for all objects.
is a specified object, but the definition does not impose any required properties on it (I mean, prior to its role in the rest of the definition).
is a specified object, which is required to have a morphism . Verbally, this says that for the product of and (which we know exists from the stated property of , above), there must exist a morphism from that, to . So, so far, we are considering a situation like this:
For to be an exponential object:
For any object , we know exists. I do not think a morphism has to exist. If it does: there must be a unique morphism , which (very roughly speaking) makes makes morphism equal to morphism (when composed). In other words (I think):
In this situation:
The red line indicates "we want to be able to get from here to here":
My current idea for (approximately) distilling this into a simple concept is, "We want there to be a correspondence between a product of two objects and some other object, where we can sort of "factor out" one of the objects (), and express the relationship as a single arrow between an object () and ."
I think that this can also be understood in the reverse direction, where we can conceptualize of the relationship between an exponential object and its "base object" , as a particular relationship directly between and .
This is all a work in progress, so no conviction in anything I've said. :+1:
(I missed the morphism in my drawing, whoops.)
Or maybe this is a simple way to put it:
If there is some "exponential object" , the relationship between every other object in the category, say, , and , can be re-expressed or maybe "decomposed", as a relationship between and - it's as if there is some "additional hidden object" we add in (I think it appears to be). If this is the case, we can rewrite to express almost how it is "controlled" by - is actually a relationship between some object and (I think).