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Stream: learning: questions

Topic: Misunderstanding on Invariant Basis Number


view this post on Zulip Jean-Baptiste Vienney (Jun 14 2024 at 21:55):

The following is driving me absolutely crazy. I'm misunderstanding something but I don't find what it is.

Let RR be a ring. In these notes (corrected the link), they say that:
(1) if II is a proper ideal of RR, and if R/IR/I has the invariant basis number (IBN), then RR also has the IBN,
(2) every division ring has the IBN.

With my understanding, it would follow that every nonzero ring has the IBN (which is false).

Here is my reasoning: Let RR be a nonzero ring. Let II be a maximal ideal of RR, which exists by Krull's theorem. Then R/IR/I is a division ring, therefore R/IR/I has the IBN. Hence RR has the IBN.

Where is the mistake??

view this post on Zulip Todd Trimble (Jun 14 2024 at 22:05):

It's probably in assuming that a ring modulo a maximal two-sided ideal is a division ring, as opposed to a simple ring.

For example, the maximal two-sided ideal of an n×nn \times n matrix algebra is the zero ideal.

view this post on Zulip Jean-Baptiste Vienney (Jun 14 2024 at 22:12):

Oh thanks, it should be that. They say here that the quotient of a ring RR by a two-sided ideal II is a division ring iff II is maximal as a left ideal or as a right ideal.