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Hi, I am trying to learn about Karoubian completions, and I don't manage to show that an idempotent (X,p) -q-> (X,p) always has a kernel.
Sure, (X,p) nor (X,q) work because qp and qq=q are nonzero, so I ran out of candidates for the kernel.
Any help please ?
Hi Davit, this notation is really pretty ambiguous. If you could define what means, and especially what means, it would be easier to see where you're stuck. And, in what category are you asking for this map to have a kernel?
Sorry for the uncompleteness of my question. So I start with a pre-additive category C, and take its Karoubian completion, which is a category whose objects are pairs (X,p) with X object of C and p:X->X an idempotent in C, and whose morphisms f : (X,p) -> (Y,q) are those morphisms f : X -> Y in C such that f = qf = fp. Composition is just the one in C.
So every textbooks and online articles say that in the Karoubian completion of a pre-additive category, every idempotent (so a morphism q : (X,p) -> (X,p) such that q^2=q) has a kernel (in the Karoubian completion).
So this is the kernel I am looking for.
Thank you.
Out of interest, where did you encounter the terminology "Karoubian"? I've seen "Karoubi completion" before, but this variant is new to me.
I think the term « Karoubian » mostly occurs in French litterature, like in the fourse on derived algebraic geometry of Sophie Morel.
Do they say "complétion Karoubienne"? Curious!
To answer the question, it might be useful to observe that:
(Those hints might be enough ;) )
How didn’t I think of it !! Yes (X,1-q) totally does the work !
Thank you so much !