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We can define enrichment in a monoidal category , without making any additional assumptions on . However, in practice, when people want to enrich in a monoidal category , they often first prove that is monoidal closed.
I guess this is because enrichment in a monoidal closed category is in some way nicer than enrichment in a mere monoidal category. But can this be stated more precisely? Is there a theorem saying what enrichment in a (symmetric?) monoidal closed category gives you that enrichment in a monoidal category doesn't, which justifies the use of monoidal closed categories in practice?
Ah nvm, I guess it's because being monoidal closed means can be seen as enriched in itself, which lets you talk about enriched presheaves and the [[enriched Yoneda lemma]]. I guess I'm still interested in hearing if there's another reason for it.
@Nathaniel Virgo Amusingly, any closed category is enriched over itself, one doesn't even need it to be monoidal for that. In fact, one still gets an enriched Yoneda lemma in this setting (see Street's paper Skew-closed categories).
Interesting, ok, so you can define enrichment in terms of the closed structure instead of the monoidal structure. I guess if it is monoidal closed the definitions coincide?
On the other side, I'm pretty sure there are results for categories enriched in monoidal (not closed) categories that could be called "the Yoneda lemma". Without closedness you can't define a profunctor as a -functor into , but you can still define it as something that gets acted on by two -categories, and I think there's a version of the Yoneda lemma that you can prove from that.
That's right. Hinich recently had a paper that proceeds in such a manner.
(Maybe 2016 isn't as "recent" as it feels to me.)
Perhaps the pertinent point is that while you can define enriched presheaves without assumptions on the base of enrichment, and consequently define an ordinary category of enriched presheaves, to actually form an enriched category of enriched presheaves, one requires at least some closure, to form the objects of enriched natural transformations that form the hom-objects of the enriched presheaf category.
I also thought you needed to be closed, with some other good properties too, to define a -object of natural transformations between two -functors between two -categories.
Alexander Campbell said:
Nathaniel Virgo Amusingly, any closed category is enriched over itself, one doesn't even need it to be monoidal for that. In fact, one still gets an enriched Yoneda lemma in this setting (see Street's paper Skew-closed categories).
This reference arrived with very convenient timing for me, thanks @Alexander Campbell
TIL that monoidal categories were derived from considering monoidal closed categories. Eilenberg and Kelly present closed categories first!
Monoidal categories are not due to Eilenberg and Kelly. They are due to Bénabou and Mac Lane c. 1963. However, I believe the Eilenberg and Kelly paper is the first place the terminology "monoidal category" appears.
Thanks for the correction @Nathanael Arkor . Indeed, scrolling down the references in the nLab page for [[monoidal category]], one finds the references to Benabou's "Categories with multiplication", but the first line of the references presents E&K as "the first monograph". I find that somewhat misleading!
James Dolan pointed me to Eilenberg and Kelly's paper a long time back. Their approach makes a certain sense because category theory is all about the homs. So it's interesting how unpopular it is to introduce closed categories first and treat monoidal categories as closed categories with extra properties, rather than the reverse.
Btw Benabou's definition of monoidal category ("categorie avec multiplication") is flawed: none of the most famous monoidal categories obey the coherence law in his definition. I explain why on pages 5-6 here.
I hope the nLab mentions this.
His paper is still important.
Also, it's amusing that in Mac Lane's paper, the first correctly defining monoidal categories, he didn't call them that. He called them"bicategories"!
John Baez said:
Btw Benabou's definition of monoidal category ("categorie avec multiplication") is flawed: none of the most famous monoidal categories obey the coherence law in his definition. I explain why on pages 5-6 here.
Aha, I couldn't see right away what was wrong with Benabou's condition, so I'm glad you provided a link.
I learned this from @Mike Shulman, btw.
John Baez said:
Also, it's amusing that in Mac Lane's paper, the first correctly defining monoidal categories, he didn't call them that. He called them"bicategories"!
In the introduction to that paper he acknowledges some work of Stasheff and Epstein preceding his, so maybe Mac Lane doesn't deserve the full credit for this that he is typically given? Does anyone know the background for that? (I can get a pdf of Part II of Stasheff's work, but not Part I, which Mac Lane cites)
I think Mac Lane deserves plenty of credit!
It's well-known that Stasheff came up with the pentagon condition earlier than Mac Lane, in his work on when an H-space is homotopy equivalent to a group. Mac Lane surely got the pentagon law from him: I believe they were in communication. But Stasheff wasn't talking about categories, and he didn't mention the unit coherence laws.
I don't know what Epstein did. I would like to know!
The main result of Mac Lane's paper is not the definition of monoidal category: it's his coherence theorem justifying that definition. This theorem is hard to state correctly, and fairly hard to prove.
Mac Lane is not quite correct in his paper when he says that his advance over Benabou is finding a "finite set" of coherence laws for monoidal categories. Maybe Mac Lane is being deliberately polite, or maybe he just didn't notice, but not only does Benabou's definition give an infinite set of coherence laws, it also gives infinitely many coherence laws that don't hold in, say .
It's entirely possible that he didn't notice. Does the kind of equality of objects that causes the problem actually happen in ?
I'm really glad to have easy access to people who know this history. I'm working on something that requires me to talk with some authority about monoidal categories, so having a solid historical account of where the definition came from feels important.
Morgan Rogers (he/him) said:
It's entirely possible that he didn't notice. Does the kind of equality of objects that causes the problem actually happen in ?
Whoops, quite possibly not. This kind of equality of objects happens in a skeletal category equivalent to . If it really matters to you that the "bad coherence law" on page 5 of my paper actually fails there, you should check. But this check will actually be rather annoying!
Here's why: is equivalent to a category that's both strict and skeletal, and there the "bad coherence law" actually does hold because all the objects you need to be equal are equal, and all the associators are identity. But cannot be made both strict and skeletal. So then we should get cases of this "bad coherence law" that fail. But finding them may be a pain in the butt, since they will probably involve infinite sets.
(As usual I edited my answer after you read it and :thumbs_up:ed it.)
It's probably safer to just say that Benabou's axiomatization includes axioms that don't follow from Mac Lane's (and have 'no right to be true').
I've improved the nLab's discussion of the history near the end of [[monoidal category]].
Why do you need expertise in the history of monoidal categories, @Morgan Rogers (he/him)? As you can see, I needed it when I wrote a history of Hoàng Xuân Sính's work on 2-groups. I wanted to know what someone in Vietnam, learning math from Grothendieck, might know about monoidal categories. She wrote her thesis from around 1967 to 1972, in the middle of a war. She knew Benabou's work, but luckily also knew the correct definition due to Mac Lane, and she used the pentagon identity to get a 3-cocycle in group cohomology from any 2-group.
I'm putting together a survey of settings in which we can talk about monoids and their actions. It may develop into a monograph, but for the time being everything I'm doing is known (and old!) so I want to keep track of some of the historical context.
Nice! It can be really fun to dig into the history of math. You just have to always keep in mind that the usual stories we hear are oversimplified - getting to the truth is a bit like detective work.
Indeed, it can take as much time to dig through the historical web of references as to read them!
Luckily, you usually wind up learning a bunch of interesting stuff.
John Baez said:
But finding them may be a pain in the butt, since they will probably involve infinite sets.
I think that in a cartesian monoidal skeletal category equivalent to Set, where we have an object with and product projections the associator must be given on the first component by Your "bad coherence condition" in this case becomes and in particular says that We construct by composing a bijection with the standard projection; using the traditional zig-zag isomorphism you can end up with sending Then is strictly decreasing so eventually sends any particular number to but of course not immediately; for instance but So this coherence doesn't always hold. Perhaps it never does but I'm not sure how easy that might be to show.
Impressive! That argument still counts as a "pain in the butt" in my book - since I don't know what the "traditional zig-zag isomorphism" is, and I'm still trying to understand how the triangular numbers 0, 1, 3, 6, 10 showed up - but it's quite admirable, and I'll probably even enjoy it once I understand it.
I would guess it's refering to a coding of pairs of natural numbers by a single natural number, something like
(something like that -- this is off the top of my head). One of those bijections where you count along SE to NW diagonals.
Got it! Nice!
Yeah, I can’t immediately read Todd’s formula but I meant to identify a possible inverse by what I think everybody does when they’re asked to write a bijection down , which is zigzag through diagonals like Todd describes.
The only difference is that whereas you were zigzagging, I'm constantly zagging. Both of us go along diagonals parallel to , but in my formula, each diagonal starts from the -axis. Not as pictorially nice as the "mowing the lawn" zigzagging description, but nicer in terms of writing down an explicit formula. :-)
Funnily, it's harder to generalize this bijection to general infinite sets. The exercise is to start from a well-ordered set and use the well-ordering to produce a bijection . What turns out to work is a bijection which is built up from an ever-increasing union of "squares" (cartesian squares of initial segments) rather than an ever-increasing union of triangles, as in the zigzagging above. (I guess this is off-topic enough, so I won't resist adding that the fact that every infinite set can be put in bijection with its square is equivalent to the axiom of choice. (-: )
Todd Trimble said:
I would guess it's refering to a coding of pairs of natural numbers by a single natural number, something like
(something like that -- this is off the top of my head). One of those bijections where you count along SE to NW diagonals.
Just to add a little without going further off-topic: I found a nice derivation of the -variable version of this formula on MathOverflow today.