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Let be a poset-valued presheaf on a topological space.
Suppose that all the projection maps have a right adjoint, i.e. for and ,
Does it follow that defined by and is a (covariant) functor?
I need to show that if then for each , .
I showed that using the Galois connection, functoriality of and the fact that left adjoint after right is an interior operator, but I am struggling to show the other direction.
Naso said:
Let be a poset-valued presheaf on a topological space.
Suppose that all the projection maps have a right adjoint, i.e. for and ,
Does it follow that defined by and is a (covariant) functor?
I need to show that if then for each , .
I showed that using the Galois connection, functoriality of and the fact that left adjoint after right is an interior operator, but I am struggling to show the other direction.
Ok, maybe this is it?
By using the Galois connection twice and functoriality of projection, we get
Then applying the Galois connection again we get
Yeah these maps are still a functor
The best way to see this imo is to notice that adjunctions compose, hence if you have a functor picking out the left adjoints, the one picking out the right adjoints will be too
Matteo Capucci (he/him) said:
Yeah these maps are still a functor
Is there a name for this? Where for two functors and , we have for all objects in and for all morphisms in ?
is a functor from to the category of (categories and adjunctions, viewed as morphisms in the direction of the left adjoint).
In general we might want to insert some pseudo- and 2- prefixes in this statement, but because you said you were working with posets, it doesn't matter: as , there's no room for any invertible natural transformations between posets-viewed-as-categories.