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Without countable choice, is a countable union of countable sets still countable if all the surjections in the definition of countable set were required to be split?
No. Even with classical logic, you can countable families of sets with exactly 2 elements (so not only split but in bijection with a known set), but with no choice function.
(of course there is no canonical way to choose the bijections with 2)
Andrew Swan said:
No. Even with classical logic, you can countable families of sets with exactly 2 elements (so not only split but in bijection with a known set), but with no choice function.
Does that still hold if the surjection of the index set of the union is also required to be split as well?
Actually, I think it still might not hold, since the usual definition of a split surjection is mere existence of a section, rather than a choice of section.
what I probably want is a completely untruncated version of the theorem, something like,
Given a set with a function and a choice of section of the function , and given a family of sets such that each comes with a function and a choice of section of the function , one can construct a function with choice of section of the function .
If there's no truncation at all then choice isn't necessary - it's just the provable "type theoretic axiom of choice." In this case there is one implicit truncation, in the definition of union, which makes it not provable, but also it's not really about countable choice. As stated, this implies that every surjection splits, by considering the special case where every is a singleton and , which implies the law of excluded middle.