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Emily Riehl exemplifies decategorization decategorification by restricting to , finite Sets and their bijections, and then defining the cardinality Functor treating as a discrete category. Essentially mapping the category of isomorphic sets to their skeleton.
She explains natural transformations, like , get mapped to equations between natural numbers, like
But if is a discrete category, it doesn't have (categorical) products right? So in what sense are the products from Set getting carried over?
Emily's example for context:
1be8b34d-18a0-4720-8886-ae11eb94f9c7.png
It's decategorification, not "decategorization".
But if is a discrete category, it doesn't have products right?
Right. does not have products, which is why it's good to realize it's the decategorification of a category that does.
I'd rather think of it as a mere set than a discrete category, in what follows. Thinking of it as a discrete category is not helpful here.
So in what sense are the products from Set getting carried over?
This is how decategorification works:
Any functor between essentially small categories gives a function
where is the set of isomorphism classes of objects of and similarly for . Here's how it works:
where is the isomorphism class of the object , and similarly for .
I think from this you can figure out how decategorifying the product functor
we get the usual multiplication of natural numbers, which is
Similarly addition comes from coproducts, and so on.
You will need to ponder and simplify it a bit, to see what's going on here. More generally: given categories and , what's ? Make the obvious guess, then prove it!
Emily is working with the groupoid of sets and bijections, which also doesn't have categorical products — but it has a monoidal product given as the cartesian product of sets.
Likewise the monoid N with multiplication is a discrete category with a monoidal product...
Emily should (in my humble opinion) be working with the category of sets and functions, so that 'products' have a nice universal property. Anyway, that's the story I was telling above.
I was more addressing @Alex Kreitzberg but it wasn't clear from your post if you were thinking about the groupoid or the category of finite sets.
I did assume he was talking about finite sets and his presentation is making sense (I'm still putting the pieces together).
When that was clear I was planning on circling back to clarifying what you pointed out, so thank you! Here decatigorification was stepping a category down to a discrete monoidal groupoid.
(if I got that last sentence right, this does seem more fussy than just saying "a set with product")
David Michael Roberts said:
I was more addressing Alex Kreitzberg but it wasn't clear from your post if you were thinking about the groupoid or the category of finite sets.
Whoops, sorry - for me is the category of finite sets and functions, while something like or is the groupoid of finite sets and bijections. ( because it's a good way of thinking of all symmetric groups together - @Joe Moeller and @Todd Trimble have been engaged in a long detailed study of this groupoid and its offspring.)
Alex Kreitzberg said:
Here decategorification was stepping a category down to a discrete monoidal groupoid.
'Discrete monoidal groupoid' is how people say 'monoid' when they've studied too much category theory too fast and haven't recovered yet. :upside_down: Some of these people also say 'object of the category of sets' instead of 'set'.
(if I got that last sentence right, this does seem more fussy than just saying "a set with product")
A monoid is a set with an associative product and identity element, and that is essentially the same as a 'discrete monoidal category' or 'discrete monoidal groupoid'.
When you decategorify a monoidal category you get a monoid.
'Set with product' is a bit ambiguous because we're left wondering about whether it obeys the associative law and has an identity. If you don't require these, say [[magma]]. If you do, say [[monoid]].
Lemma For all categories C and D,
Proof:
First, for all and an object is isomorphic to another object exactly when we can find isomorphisms and because then and only then can we have the isomorphism
So if and only if and
Now define a function by
The following chain of equivalences is useful:
The top down direction of the logic chain implies there exists a unique so that for all .
We know is surjective because is surjective. We also now is injective since is injective on isomorphism classes. That's proved by following the previous chain of equivalences from the bottom up.
This proves our Lemma.
So now what happens when we decatigorify ?
Define and for all define . Every finite set is isomorphic to one of these.
So now the following:
Becomes under , and precomposition by :
But so this is just
Which is just multiplication of natural numbers.
:tada: GREAT! :tada:
By the way, if you know about coproducts, we also have
so it's all quite nice.
So is just an ordinary functor that preserves limits and colimits?
Making it a left and right adjoint functor?
Hmm, I have no idea if it preserves limits and colimits - that sounds too good to be true, I just said products and coproducts. I'll think about it.
I guess you're thinking of as going from the category of categories to the category of sets.
It also goes from the 2-category of categories, functors and natural isomorphisms to the category of sets regarded as a discrete 2-category. This is a very useful fact: e.g. it implies that equivalent categories have isomorphic decategorifications. But this changes the meaning of your question about whether it preserves limits and colimits.
No, it doesn't preserve equalizers - at least not if we think of it going from the category of categories and functors to the category of sets and functions.
Interesting, I guess I was just trying to ask something about to understand it better. While using it, it seemed like I wasn't using all the structure it might have.
So your added context is what I was looking for
Puzzle: find a category with two objects and only two non-identity morphisms, and a functor , such that
is not isomorphic to
Here I'm thinking of as a functor from the 1-category to the 1-category , which is not really ideal.
(For anyone who wants a puzzle.)
puzzle solution:
Define a category with two objects and an isomorphism between them. Define to swap the objects, and the components of the isomorphism.
Now and disagree on every input, so their equalizer is the empty category, which decatigorifies to the empty set.
Both and are maps from a singleton set to itself, which makes them both the identity function. So their equalizer is just the singleton set.
The singleton set isn't isomorphic to the empty set.
Great! I believe this is the simplest counterexample to show doesn't preserve limits, at least when we think of it as going from the mere 1-category of categories to .
If we work with the 2-category of categories, functors and natural isomorphisms, and replace the concept of 'limit' by the subtler 2-categorical concept of limit, things may work out better.
I think I confused the story.
In the original example also didn't preserve limits, because wasn't a categorical product, it's a monoidal product. So is a monoidal functor.
But is a ring, which I imagine categorifies to a fancier definition than a monoidal category. So is a bit better then that.
So maybe "does it preserve limits?" doesn't make sense? For the same reason it doesn't make sense to say is a product, the are no arrows in .
I'll think about how is a Functor between 2-categories.
Or wait, maybe I'm level slipping.
Maybe we can say the products between categories gets sent to a product between sets, instead of the product within the category being sent to Natural number's multiplication?
I needed to get this out before I went to sleep, tomorrow I'll try to draw a picture of everything I guess :joy:
Maybe reread what I wrote?
I'm sorry which part?
Well, you're saying some curious things like this:
Alex Kreitzberg said:
In the original example also didn't preserve limits, because wasn't a categorical product, it's a monoidal product. So is a monoidal functor.
In the first argument, a categorical product between categories was sent to a categorical product of sets. At that level products are preserved but not limits, at least when talking about 1-categories.
But I thought we were trying to understand how natural transformations between Set endofunctors stepped down to equations between natural numbers.
I'm getting confused with the relationship between the two.
Maybe I'm getting confused with Reihl's presentation again? Because I'm substituting in her Functor from to , with but they really aren't the same?
No they can't be the same
Okay, I'm going to try to understand the way is a Functor between 2-categories
I shouldn't post anything when I'm hallucinating at 1 in the morning :upside_down:
Okay, we have a 2-Category of Categories, Functors and natural isomorphisms
Decat steps this down to a 2-Category of Sets, functions, and function equality.
We've already explored a little bit how this works on objects and Functors. So now we should show natural isomorphisms map to equalities under .
Suppose we have two Functors and
And a natural isomorphism between them . Then for each their outputs are isomorphic .
I don't think I showed this earlier, but isomorphisms are preserved by functors, therefore isomorphic inputs map to isomorphic outputs; Hence, Decat taking Functors to functions between isomorphism classes is well defined.
In any case implies for all , so , where and
Finally, this shows that if you know noting both sides are the images of Functors
And have all of the product and union results about Decat, then
where , and .
Which is the desired relationship Riehl was alluding to.
Note I think I'm abusing the notation above a bit by applying to a set, like in , because works on Functors and categories, not objects of a specific category, but I think if is read as the equivalence class of then the above argument works.
An aside, I did need to reread what Baez wrote, because I read the 2-category as the category of categories, functors, and natural transformations. After getting my head sorted, even in this case I think it's possible to decatigorify to preorders and monotonic functions.
We draw an inequality between isomorphism classes if there is a monomorphism or section between representing objects. Then I think a natural (monomorphism? section?) from F to G could map to monotonic functions satisfying f≤g
Edit:
I accidentally deleted everything at one point I hope it's sorted now.
I'd appreciate feedback on the argument, I'm worried I'm level slipping somewhere
Can a server administrator restore the most recent message? Jean's suggestion helped!
If you click on «EDITED », you will see the history of the different versions of your message. Not in LaTeX though apparently.
Thank you!
An aside, I did need to reread what Baez wrote, because I read the 2-category as the category of categories, functors, and natural transformations.
Aha - yes, does not extend to a 2-functor from that 2-category to , because two functors with a natural transformation between them can do different things to isomorphism classes of objects in .
After getting my head sorted, even in this case I think it's possible to decategorify to preorders and monotonic functions.
How does that work?
You can collapse any category to a preorder whose elements are objects of and iff there's a morphism .
Any functor then gives a monotone map, let's call it
,
in an evident way. We can show thus defined is a functor from the category of categories to the category of preorders.
But if there's a natural transformation we don't usually have . What we instead get is
Here I'm using the fact that given two monotone maps between preorders, say , we can define to mean
Using this we see that there's not just a set of monotone maps between preorders, but a preorder of them.
And using this we get a 2-category of preorders, monotone maps, and relations between monotone maps!
And if I'm not screwing up, we can extend as defined so far to a 2-functor
Is that what you were talking about?
I thought of that initially, but I was worried the choice of if and only if , was somehow too permissive.
Because then in you have two way inequalities between every nonempty set. And one from the empty set to every other set.
So you can only tell whether a set is empty or not right?
So I was wondering if there was a principled way to choose a functor across all categories, which for the case of mapped to Natural numbers with the usual ordering.
That's why I was trying to restrict the categories to their subcategories of monomorphisms or sections (I hope that makes sense).
(that is, I'm not sure the sections or monomorphisms by themselves form categories, I think the monomorphisms might...)
If are monomorphisms, then implies implies so the composition is a monomorphism
And the identity is a monomorphism, so I think the restriction of a category to those is still a category.
And then make the inequality if and only if , after making the restriction to monomorphisms.
I think that'll take to with the usual ordering after decatigorification, but I haven't worked it out yet.
Alex Kreitzberg said:
I thought of that initially, but I was worried the choice of if and only if , was somehow too permissive.
I think you're imposing your taste on the math instead of letting the math tell you what it wants. Mathematics really loves the 2-functor that I described. I could explain why. But let's solve your problem.
Because then in you have two way inequalities between every nonempty set. And one from the empty set to every other set. [...] That's why I was trying to restrict the categories to their subcategories of monomorphisms or sections (I hope that makes sense).
So you're saying that the category of sets and functions give you a very boring preorder if you apply the 2-functor I described. True. For But if you want a more interesting preorder, just apply to the category of sets and injective functions.
And notice this is something you can do quite generally. Given a category , you can define a new category with the same objects but only monomorphisms as morphisms. Then you can apply to this.
In other words: instead of discarding a beautiful tool because you don't like what it does in one particular example, notice that there's another tool available, and you can use that one first.
Okay, very cool. I'll try to quiet my mind and listen to what math is trying to tell me.
It's cool (and kinda funny) that is directly useful for the problem I was trying to understand :joy:. That's good marketing!
I can't resist saying a bit more. The category has a baby sister called with just two objects, and . There's a functor that sends empty sets to and nonempty ones to . This functor is symmetric monoidal in two ways: it sends coproduct to "or" and product to "and".
In enriched category theory, a -enriched category is just a category, since it has a set of morphisms from any object to any other. A -enriched category is a preorder, since it has a truth value of morphisms from any object to any other.
The functor I mentioned can be used to do base change. In this example, base change turns any -enriched category to a -enriched category, by turning the hom-sets into hom-truth values. And this base change process is just what I've been calling .
This is why is so beautiful: this process for turning categories into preorders emerges automatically from the simpler process of turning sets into truth values.
I'm going to respond to what you posted after thinking carefully about it, but before moving on from to , I wanted to clarify something.
There are a lot of products in our example and it's making me fidgety. Specifically we have three, we have (I don't know what category this is an arrow in), , and
Now takes to
So taking the categorical product to the set product. So it preserves products when we pay attention to what does on objects.
also operates on the Functor , explicitly
I interpreted that last equality to mean was monoidal, because it took the tensor product to the monoid product , is "monoidal functor" the right terminology here?
Does that all look correct?
And if that is correct, waaaay back when you wrote Was that + on the left on categories, and the + on the right on Sets?
Doesn't map to ?
Alex Kreitzberg said:
There are a lot of products in our example and it's making me fidgety. Specifically we have three, we have (I don't know what category this is an arrow in),
You introduced this notation, and it sounds like you're asking us to guess exactly what you mean by it - which is extra fun because you say you don't know! :upside_down:
I can't tell whether this increases our chance of giving you an answer you consider correct, or decreases it. But I will rise to this challenge:
You may recall we discussed as a 2-functor
where is the 2-category of categories, functors and natural isomorphisms (this is Steve Lack's notation, I'm not wedded to it), and is the 2-category of sets, functions, and identity 2-morphisms between functions.
I asked you to show
for any categories , and you happily did it.
And here's the point: the at left is the product in , while the at right is the product in .
So I'm guessing that your new symbol means the product in , while your means the product in .
That is how I understood I didn't know what to put after the colon, feels weirdly recursive somehow. That's all that parenthetical was intended to convey.
This seems to make your various formulas be correct, e.g.
says that the product in is a 2-functor from the category , defined as a product in , to the category .
Alex Kreitzberg said:
And if that is correct, waaaay back when you wrote Was that + on the left on categories, and the + on the right on Sets?
Yes indeed. If I were feeling like a smart-aleck I'd say "what else could it possibly be? - that's the only thing that parses!"
and are categories, i.e. objects of , while and are sets, i.e. objects of . We always take products in the category or 2-category where our objects actually live.
By the way, I should assert this claim:
The 2-functor preserves products and coproducts.
This claim implies
and
but also more (as you'll see from the definition of 'co/product preserving functor').
Alex Kreitzberg said:
Doesn't map to ?
Yes indeed! Here is ordinary addition of natural numbers, which is not a coproduct. So we say that the addition of natural numbers comes from decategorifying the coproduct of finite sets. Similarly multiplication of natural numbers comes from decategorifying the product of finite sets!
I love how the various levels of multiplication - multiplication of natural numbers, product of sets and product of categories - interact with each other, with each relying on the next one. This is an example of the [[microcosm principle]].
And it goes on forever: for example, the product in gives a 2-functor
where the times symbol in the expression is the product in the 3-category of 2-categories! (You can use a 2-category or even a 1-category of 2-categories if you prefer, but the mathematics has a certain desire to keep escalating.)
Okay, so we never use that preserves coproducts to prove the natural number equations come from decatigorifying the natural isomorphisms then (because all of them are of the form ).
Instead I'd need to give an argument like
or
Decatigorifies to
err... , I dunno how to make this not look silly XD.
I think I understand all the parts now. And you're right the interactions are interesting.
Just one last question, can I say that is monoidal because it sends a tensor product to a monoid product? It seems like all the monoidal category natural isomorphisms will decatigorify to monoid multiplications - is it therefore a monoidal functor, or is that not quite right terminologically?
I'm trying to understand David's earlier comment about monoidal products
Alex Kreitzberg said:
Okay, so we never use that preserves coproducts to prove the natural number equations come from decatigorifying the natural isomorphisms then.
Right, there's an interesting asymmetry! You might think products and coproducts are perfectly symmetrical, we use products to describe binary operations, even coproducts! E.g.
coproduct of sets defines a functor
not
We can try to repair this asymmetry in various ways, but that's another story for another evening.
Oh I wasn't planning on fixing that asymmetry, that's hilarious that you can XD, food for thought!
Alex Kreitzberg said:
Just one last question....
I bet you're going to break that promise someday. :wink:
can I say that is monoidal because it sends a tensor product to a monoid?
Yikes! I get what you mean, but let's say it right:
And this is how multiplication of natural numbers emerges from product of finite sets! Now you can really see how all the levels are interacting.
Woooow, okay cool. Believe it or not, that is all making sense (though it's clear to really get it I need to walk down each level manually)
I'll leave it there, I'll try to ask a good question about later.
You have a good evening, thank you for your time.
Great! Yes, it's easy to get lost among these levels, especially since they all look so similar... but that's actually one reason this subject is fun: it all makes perfect sense eventually and you feel like a 'master of many levels'.
Another perspective on this is that in we have a morphism which must be carried by to a morphism in (since it's a functor). But here we only have identities; so we must assert that by lack of a better option. (This might be why Emily doesn't work with directly, as a functor would be constant.)
This is something that systematically happens in decategorification: what was an -morphism at one level must become an identity (equality) one level down, due to the lack of non-identities.
That makes me think of using Baez's preorder functor.
This is a good moment to call out, in Riehl's original example, she defined a cardinality Functor which is a morphism in , but and are both morphisms in .
If the goal is to understand Decatigorification beyond just , then it makes more sense to talk about and , so I get the motivation behind Baez's shift in focus.
Though I suppose Riehl was trying to avoid talking about 2-categories, since her goal here was to show off how nifty natural transformations are.
Actually do we have ?
Hmm
I guess this doesn't fit Daniel's point perfectly because they're saying the target doesn't have inequalities, only equalities, and so the natural transformations are forced to fit.
Here I'm defining to restrict a category to its isomorphisms.
Great puzzle there. What you're calling is now often called the core of a category and denoted --- this convention seems to have been invented by people at the nLab, but it seems to be catching on. So I'll use that.
Puzzle. Suppose we apply the 2-functor which takes a category and throws out all morphisms except isomorphisms, and then apply the 2-functor which collapses a category to a preorder where iff there was a morphism from to . How is this related to applying the 2-functor , which sends a category to its set of isomorphism classes?
I've been trying to keep myself from being confused by bicategories and pseudofunctors
All the Functors we have, , , and are strict. I did a quick proof that each one was a "Functor" in the naive sense.
I did this because our maps disagree on the category with one isomorphism
However, the mapped categories are equivalent.
I don't think I can make a canonical choice of functors exhibiting this equivalence for every category, so I don't think and have a natural equivalence.
I think I could get these "equal" if I used the skeleton pseudofunctor on the output of making the preorder into a total order, so
note: I don't really fully understand pseudofunctors but I get the motivation.
The relationships here seem innocuous but I'm worried that if I trip I'll fall off a cliff.
Why is it safe to work with strict 2-Functors and strict 2-categories generally? Is it true I need Pseudofunctors to get these Functors to be "the same", and therefore I need bicategories? Am I overthinking this?
Every bicategory is equivalent to a strict 2-category - this is a souped-up version of Mac Lane's strictification theorem saying every monoidal category is equivalent to a strict monoidal category.
However, the equivalence here is not a strict 2-functor.
There's a lot more to say about this, but you've convinced me that Pre core and Decat are equivalent if we set up the machinery intelligently (e.g., not more strict than it should be, etc.).