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Stream: learning: questions

Topic: Commutative Monoids and Functors from Finite Spans


view this post on Zulip Jade Master (May 27 2025 at 10:39):

In a seminar advertisement, I recently found the following claim:

Commutative monoids in a category with finite products can be
identified with product-preserving functors from spans of finite
sets.

Has anyone heard this or know the detail of how this works? Looks super interesting!

view this post on Zulip John Baez (May 27 2025 at 11:10):

The idea must be that the symmetric monoidal category of spans of finite sets is generated by spans from 2 to 1 (corresponding to multiplication in your monoid) and from 1 to 2 (corresponding to the diagonal map from your monoid to its square).

view this post on Zulip John Baez (May 27 2025 at 11:10):

Btw, I sent you an urgent email over the weekend.

view this post on Zulip Ralph Sarkis (May 27 2025 at 11:18):

You can get all the details in this paper on deconstructing Lawvere theories. It is very concisely stated in Example 6.2a, but to digest the story a bit:

You can recognize John's comments in this.

view this post on Zulip Nathanael Arkor (May 27 2025 at 11:21):

Theorem 1.24 of Gambino and Kock's Polynomial functors and polynomial monads is also worth taking a look at.

view this post on Zulip John Baez (May 27 2025 at 11:22):

I'm more familiar with the prop for commutative monoids than what we're talking about here, the Lawvere theory for commutative monoids. The prop is just FinSet op^{\text{op}}, since it lacks the map from 1 to 2.

view this post on Zulip James Deikun (May 27 2025 at 11:30):

See also https://arxiv.org/abs/1109.1598 ...

view this post on Zulip Claudio Pisani (Jul 12 2025 at 09:20):

If RR is a rig, the Lawvere theory for RR-modules is the category of matrices with entries in RR.

Thus, in particular, the Lawvere theory for commutative monoids (which are the N\rm N-modules) is the category of matrices of natural numbers.

The category of spans in finite sets may be considered an unbiased version of Mat(N)\rm Mat(N).

view this post on Zulip John Baez (Jul 12 2025 at 09:33):

If RR is a rig, the Lawvere theory for RR-modules is the category of matrices with entries in RR.

Right. This can be seen from that therem saying the Lawvere theory of X's is the opposite of the category of finitely generated free X's. The Lawvere theory of RR-modules is thus the opposite of teh category of finitely generated free RR-modules, which is the category of matrices with entries in RR. But this category is equivalent to its opposite, by taking transposes of matrices!

view this post on Zulip John Baez (Jul 12 2025 at 09:34):

Now that makes me wonder: which Lawvere theories are equivalent to their opposite category?

view this post on Zulip Claudio Pisani (Jul 12 2025 at 15:13):

John Baez said:

Now that makes me wonder: which Lawvere theories are equivalent to their opposite category?

I don't know, but I wouldn't be surprised if Mat(R)\rm Mat(R) is in fact the only instance.

view this post on Zulip John Baez (Jul 12 2025 at 16:09):

That's a fun conjecture! Note the finite products have to be coproducts as well, which is well on the way to being biproducts as they are in Mat(R)\mathsf{Mat}(R).

view this post on Zulip Claudio Pisani (Jul 12 2025 at 18:48):

John Baez said:

Note the finite products have to be coproducts as well

... so that an arrow nm\,\rm n \to m\, is an arrow from a coproduct to a product (of the generating object xx) and so it is a matrix of arrows xxx\to x ...

view this post on Zulip Mike Shulman (Jul 12 2025 at 18:57):

Are you assuming that the contravariant autoequivalence is the identity on objects? Or can you prove that?

view this post on Zulip Claudio Pisani (Jul 12 2025 at 19:51):

Mike Shulman said:

Are you assuming that the contravariant autoequivalence is the identity on objects? Or can you prove that?

well, I was just suggesting an idea of a proof; but maybe the enunciate itself, as you suggest, should be clarified ...

view this post on Zulip John Baez (Jul 12 2025 at 20:13):

Mike Shulman said:

Are you assuming that the contravariant autoequivalence is the identity on objects? Or can you prove that?

I guess I was stupidly assuming that without noticing. But it might be nice to assume that, see how far one can get with that assumption, and then see what it takes to prove that assumption.

view this post on Zulip Mike Shulman (Jul 12 2025 at 20:57):

I admit it would be pretty wild if you could have such an autoequivalence that was not the identity on objects.