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In a seminar advertisement, I recently found the following claim:
Commutative monoids in a category with finite products can be
identified with product-preserving functors from spans of finite
sets.
Has anyone heard this or know the detail of how this works? Looks super interesting!
The idea must be that the symmetric monoidal category of spans of finite sets is generated by spans from 2 to 1 (corresponding to multiplication in your monoid) and from 1 to 2 (corresponding to the diagonal map from your monoid to its square).
Btw, I sent you an urgent email over the weekend.
You can get all the details in this paper on deconstructing Lawvere theories. It is very concisely stated in Example 6.2a, but to digest the story a bit:
You can recognize John's comments in this.
Theorem 1.24 of Gambino and Kock's Polynomial functors and polynomial monads is also worth taking a look at.
I'm more familiar with the prop for commutative monoids than what we're talking about here, the Lawvere theory for commutative monoids. The prop is just FinSet , since it lacks the map from 1 to 2.
See also https://arxiv.org/abs/1109.1598 ...
If is a rig, the Lawvere theory for -modules is the category of matrices with entries in .
Thus, in particular, the Lawvere theory for commutative monoids (which are the -modules) is the category of matrices of natural numbers.
The category of spans in finite sets may be considered an unbiased version of .
If is a rig, the Lawvere theory for -modules is the category of matrices with entries in .
Right. This can be seen from that therem saying the Lawvere theory of X's is the opposite of the category of finitely generated free X's. The Lawvere theory of -modules is thus the opposite of teh category of finitely generated free -modules, which is the category of matrices with entries in . But this category is equivalent to its opposite, by taking transposes of matrices!
Now that makes me wonder: which Lawvere theories are equivalent to their opposite category?
John Baez said:
Now that makes me wonder: which Lawvere theories are equivalent to their opposite category?
I don't know, but I wouldn't be surprised if is in fact the only instance.
That's a fun conjecture! Note the finite products have to be coproducts as well, which is well on the way to being biproducts as they are in .
John Baez said:
Note the finite products have to be coproducts as well
... so that an arrow is an arrow from a coproduct to a product (of the generating object ) and so it is a matrix of arrows ...
Are you assuming that the contravariant autoequivalence is the identity on objects? Or can you prove that?
Mike Shulman said:
Are you assuming that the contravariant autoequivalence is the identity on objects? Or can you prove that?
well, I was just suggesting an idea of a proof; but maybe the enunciate itself, as you suggest, should be clarified ...
Mike Shulman said:
Are you assuming that the contravariant autoequivalence is the identity on objects? Or can you prove that?
I guess I was stupidly assuming that without noticing. But it might be nice to assume that, see how far one can get with that assumption, and then see what it takes to prove that assumption.
I admit it would be pretty wild if you could have such an autoequivalence that was not the identity on objects.