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For , let there be a functor , such that , written , is Hom-set , and for , is the function mapping each to .
Can a Hom-functor be “reversed”? If there was an inverse, it should send to , and to . I don’t see initially why this shouldn’t work.
Is there an interesting use case of taking a Hom-functor a second time, on the target category of the first one?
Is there an interesting use case of treating a given category as if it were the image of a Hom-functor (or, isomorphic to that), and applying this “inverse Hom-functor”?
A representable functor is one that is naturally isomorphic to a Hom-functor. From an introductory point of view, what is useful about a functor being “representable” as a Hom-functor?
(Kind comments only.)
Can a Hom-functor be “reversed”?
It seems you're trying to ask the following question: let be a category and assume there is an object such that is an equivalence of categories (so applying the inverse you indeed "get back out of "). What do I know about ? The answer is: this is a fairly restrictive assumption on (and on , of course, which ends up being essentially the category of sets). For example, a functor that is an equivalence of categories preserves all colimits, as well as all limits: then, must preserve all colimits, making into a [[tiny object]]. Now, can't be a random object: call the adjoint inverse of ; since every set is a coproduct of singletons, and G is itself an equivalence of categories, for every set one has , and now... [hint: relate and ]
One can relax this (evidently too restrictive) situation; it is fairly common for to admit a left adjoint, without it being an equivalence... the left adjoint of is the functor sending a set to an -indexed sum of copies of :
[so that I just spoiled the previous exercise ;-) ] and it's usually called a [[copower]].
Is there an interesting use case of taking a Hom-functor a second time, on the target category of the first one?
it depends: you're considering the composition , which is the functor
which (as per my previous comment, whenever iterated coproducts exist) is isomorphic to the functor . Now, it depends what you want to do. I would say this is an interesting functor, but you have to see it as a particular instance of a general construction (a very simple example of a [[weighted colimit]]).
From an introductory point of view, what is useful about a functor being “representable” as a Hom-functor?
A conversation that might enlighten you on this matter is happening right now in the "classifying object" thread. Very simply put: if a functor is representable, it acts like for some (uniquely determined) . But then, the set contains a special ("universal") element which specifies the action of entirely.
Out of any one can build the category having
the category structure is exactly what you expect. Since the class of objects off is the dependent sum , of all elements of the various when runs over , we call the category of elements of .
Now: the following two conditions are equivalent.
It is particularly instructive to prove that 2 1. Try!
That is an extremely good answer, thank you hugely.