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I'm sure this is a pretty basic question, but here it goes.
I was watching some CT lectures, and there was a segment where they had to prove two functors F: C → Set
and G: C → Set
to be isomorphic. The proof went a little bit like follows:
( I think that the exact functors were Hom(AxB, _)
and Hom(A,_) x Hom(B,_)
or something similar).
I think that, that argument demonstrates: ∀X∈C: FX≡GX
.
I don't think that for arbitrary functors F and G, this implies that F≡G. For example, I think that I can construct categories where ∀X∈C: FX≡GX
, but F and G are not isomorphic.
However, when the target category is Set, does this implication hold?
You also have to show that the isomorphisms between each and are natural. This is what it means for two functors to be isomorphic: that there is a natural isomorphism between them.
And no, objectwise isomorphic functors need not be naturally isomorphic, even in case the target category is Set. The most famous example of an unnatural isomorphism, that between a finite-dimensional vector space and its dual, is such a case, if you just add an underlying-set functor.
With that said, there's a reason natural transformations are called "natural": in many, many, cases, when you define some transformation in a "natural" way (in the informal sense), it turns out to be natural in the formal sense as well. And so, mathematicians frequently omit to verify naturality explicitly because it is "obvious".
Right, that's presumably what happened in this lecture. "Natural" examples of unnatural isomorphisms are rare!
In the particular case, where the functors must have been something more like Hom(A+B,-)
and Hom(A,-) x Hom(B,-)
for the claim to be correct, the point is that the way your mind notices that Hom(A+B,X)
is isomorphic to Hom(A,X) x Hom(B,X)
is by observing a specific isomorphism, not a random one, and the specific isomorphism you've observed happens to be natural, which semi-justifies not discussing the naturality.
Kevin Carlson said:
In the particular case, where the functors must have been something more like
Hom(A+B,-)
andHom(A,-) x Hom(B,-)
for the claim to be correct, the point is that the way your mind notices thatHom(A+B,X)
is isomorphic toHom(A,X) x Hom(B,X)
is by observing a specific isomorphism, not a random one, and the specific isomorphism you've observed happens to be natural, which semi-justifies not discussing the naturality.
To add to this example, any time you are showing that a functor is representable by constructing a natural isomorphism for some , you don't need to check any naturality conditions. By the Yoneda lemma, the natural transformation always arises as the functorial action of $F$ on a "universal element" of $F(c)$, and such a functorial action is natural. So as long as you present that morphism by an action on a universal element, there is no actual manual verification necessary
And if it's not clear you don't have to check that the inverse is natural because inverses of natural transformations are natural. This is one of my favorite practical motivations for the Yoneda lemma, without something like it category theory really would have an insane proliferation of side-conditions that would all need to be manually verified.
Kevin Carlson said:
The most famous example of an unnatural isomorphism, that between a finite-dimensional vector space and its dual....
By the way, the unfortunate thing about this claimed example is that taking the dual is not a functor , so the idea of a natural isomorphism between this functor and the identity doesn't even parse!
Taking the dual gives a functor
I owe this observation to my friend Bill Schmitt.
One of my favorite examples of an unnatural isomorphism where the statement of naturality would typecheck is between an [[affine space]] and the underlying affine space of the vector space of displacements in . This is important because if the isomorphism were natural, the categories of vector spaces and affine spaces would be equivalent, which they're not. (The other isomorphism, between a vector space and the vector space of displacements in the underlying affine space of , is natural.) You can also postcompose it with an underlying-set functor to get a pair of unnaturally isomorphic functors to Set.
A simpler version of the same thing is between a [[heap]] and the underlying heap of its structure group.
Ah, that's a really nice example, Mike! So nice, you (or demons in the Zulip server) posted it wice :)
Begone, Zulip demons; I banish you with the arcane Delete button!
Max New said:
inverses of natural transformations
Should it be natural isomorphisms here? I don't think all natural transformation have an inverse..
Max New said:
that morphism
Here, this morphism is the component of the natural transformation, right?
Suraaj K S said:
Max New said:
inverses of natural transformations
Should it be natural isomorphisms here? I don't think all natural transformation have an inverse..
The property I'm saying is that if you have a natural transformation where and for every , has an inverse, then those inverses assemble into a natural transformation
Suraaj K S said:
Max New said:
that morphism
Here, this morphism is the component of the natural transformation, right?
To be totally precise, to construct a natural transformation it is sufficient to define an element and define the transformation . You can check once and for all such an is natural, and the Yoneda lemma says that in fact all natural transformations arise in this way by picking to be . The Yoneda lemma is that .