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A functor is called a contravariant functor from . Is there an analogous name for a 2-functor ?
An opvariant functor, obviously. :laughing:
Shouldn't it be an optravariant functor?
Whoever decided on the term "covariant" was not thinking ahead.
Back then, probably in the late 1800s, the "co-" in "covariant" meant with - something that varies with, not against, what you're doing. But later someone started using "co-" to mean, umm, "contra-".
Who first started saying stuff like "coalgebra"?
Just think that we could have had the infinitely more steampunk "contralimits", "contramonads" etc.
That would be great. But we're in so much of a mess now there's no way to get out, short of a civilizational reboot.
John Baez said:
Who first started saying stuff like "coalgebra"?
My guess would be Eilenberg and Mac Lane first named colimits, coproducts etc
John Baez said:
Who first started saying stuff like "coalgebra"?
Doesn't it make sense as the notion comes with that of an algebra?
Jules Hedges said:
John Baez said:
Who first started saying stuff like "coalgebra"?
My guess would be Eilenberg and Mac Lane first named colimits, coproducts etc
What about “cosine”?
According to an overflow answer, it means something like 'sine of the complementary angle'.
Interesting, I wonder if "co" in category theory is short for complementary, that would actually make sense
Re "coalgebra":
Doesn't it make sense as the notion comes with that of an algebra?
But everyone reads "co-" in "colgebra" to mean the "like an algebra but backwards, or upside-down". In other words, "co-" indicates a reversal.
I think "cosine" is a good clue.
Which came first, "colimit" or "coalgebra"?
My guess would be colimit, does it appear in the very first Eilenberg-Mac Lane paper?
It would work if we just switched to saying that functors were covariant or 'variant'.
The physicists and geometers were doing pretty well using "co-" and "contra-" as antonyms.
But now things are hopelessly fuddled.
John Baez said:
But everyone reads "co-" in "colgebra" to mean the "like an algebra but backwards, or upside-down". In other words, "co-" indicates a reversal.
Isn't this what it is? A co-coalgebra is an algebra, isn't it?
Jules Hedges said:
My guess would be colimit, does it appear in the very first Eilenberg-Mac Lane paper?
Limits and colimits used to be called inverse limits and direct limits, so "co-" in "colimit" appeared relatively late.
Christoph Thies said:
Isn't this what it is? A co-coalgebra is an algebra, isn't it?
No. An algebra is a map for some functor, a coalgebra is a map
Christoph Thies said:
John Baez said:
But everyone reads "co-" in "colgebra" to mean the "like an algebra but backwards, or upside-down". In other words, "co-" indicates a reversal.
Isn't this what it is?
Yes, that's what it is. I'm saying that in the term "coalgebra", people don't read "co-" as meaning "with", contrary to what you seemed to be suggesting. They read it as meaning "opposite to".
A modern mathematician would read "cooperation" and think "operating in reverse".
Which is why if you ask a mathematician to cooperate they'll do the exact opposite of what you want.
To get anything done, you need copsychology.
My guess is that the original source of the “co-” prefix is the pair domain/codomain, since the most obvious effect of passing to the opposite category is that these two are reversed.
According to this thread, “domain/codomain” seems to appear in 1922 for the first time, and be based on Russell&Whitehead's terminology of “domain/converse domain” in the Principia Mathematica.
So our categorical “co-” would originate from converse.
That's a different “co-” from the one in cosine, which seems to be an abbreviation of sine of the complementary angle (sinus complementi -> cosinus).
There's also the converse of a relation
Interestingly, in “converse” the “con-” is not really doing much semantic work, it just strengthens the word -- “versus” means “turned”, “conversus” means “turned around completely”
So the modern terminology exactly matches Russell & Whitehead: the codomain of a function is its domain in the opposite category
So maybe, really, we should have used “versi-” as a prefix... :D
versilimit, versialgebra
Tbh, a proper Greek/Latin prefix which means 'opposite' does exist: it's just “anti-”.
There are trigonometric functions called "versine" (1 - cosine) and "coversine" (1 - sine): the geometers are really making the most of the different prefixes.
Instinctively I think "antilimit" sounds kinda reasonable, but "antialgebra" sounds very strange
I think we really missed an opportunity with “antialgebra”, it sounds like something which is there to wage a war on algebra.
The next step is to abolish compounds that mix words of Greek origin with Latin prefixes and viceversa (polycategory: yay, multicategory: nay)...
What about mixing with Arabic words like "algebra"?
Or Germanic/old English words like "ring"?
Amar Hadzihasanovic said:
The next step is to abolish compounds that mix words of Greek origin with Latin prefixes and viceversa (polycategory: yay, multicategory: nay)...
This. Mixing Latin and Greek in naming things really is an unholy practice.
Fabrizio Genovese said:
Amar Hadzihasanovic said:
The next step is to abolish compounds that mix words of Greek origin with Latin prefixes and viceversa (polycategory: yay, multicategory: nay)...
This. Mixing Latin and Greek in naming things really is an unholy practice.
I guess this makes you against both homosexuality and heterosexuality (but not bisexuality!). But this is a silly hill to die on. So many of the tiny prefixes and suffixes (re-, a-, -er, -ist) are Latin or Greek affiliated and these are never seen as an issue.
Ian Coley said:
Fabrizio Genovese said:
Amar Hadzihasanovic said:
The next step is to abolish compounds that mix words of Greek origin with Latin prefixes and viceversa (polycategory: yay, multicategory: nay)...
This. Mixing Latin and Greek in naming things really is an unholy practice.
I guess this makes you against both homosexuality and heterosexuality (but not bisexuality!). But this is a silly hill to die on. So many of the tiny prefixes and suffixes (re-, a-, -er, -ist) are Latin or Greek affiliated and these are never seen as an issue.
It's actually more complicated than this. The rule applies when you are taking two words that do not exist in your language and mix them up. "Homosexuality" is fine because "sexuality" is already a well-established English word.
What I'm talking about applies mainly in fields like biology, where you take words directly from Latin/Greek, such as "Aedes albopictus" or "Bubo bubo".
So, for instance, "pericardiac" is perfectly acceptable. "Circumcardiac" is just next-level horrible.
Amar Hadzihasanovic said:
My guess is that the original source of the “co-” prefix is the pair domain/codomain, since the most obvious effect of passing to the opposite category is that these two are reversed.
According to this thread, “domain/codomain” seems to appear in 1922 for the first time, and be based on Russell&Whitehead's terminology of “domain/converse domain” in the Principia Mathematica.
Nice!!!
Well 'category' is already a well-established English word, so I don't think you can reject multicategory. Or you could call them 'coloured operads' and avoid the trouble. (Although looking at nLab they might not be exactly the same ... so you'd have to call them non-symmetric coloured operads)
shouldn't they be asymmetric? :upside_down:
Ian Coley said:
Well 'category' is already a well-established English word, so I don't think you can reject multicategory. Or you could call them 'coloured operads' and avoid the trouble. (Although looking at nLab they might not be exactly the same ... so you'd have to call them non-symmetric coloured operads)
Indeed I wasn't referring to the "polycategory" issue specifically, but to the general practice :smile:
Reid Barton said:
shouldn't they be asymmetric? :upside_down:
:silence:
Fabrizio Genovese said:
Ian Coley said:
Fabrizio Genovese said:
Amar Hadzihasanovic said:
The next step is to abolish compounds that mix words of Greek origin with Latin prefixes and viceversa (polycategory: yay, multicategory: nay)...
This. Mixing Latin and Greek in naming things really is an unholy practice.
I guess this makes you against both homosexuality and heterosexuality (but not bisexuality!). But this is a silly hill to die on. So many of the tiny prefixes and suffixes (re-, a-, -er, -ist) are Latin or Greek affiliated and these are never seen as an issue.
It's actually more complicated than this. The rule applies when you are taking two words that do not exist in your language and mix them up. "Homosexuality" is fine because "sexuality" is already a well-established English word.
By that standard, "television" might get a pass because "vision" was already well established in the English language when the boob tube was introduced, but "Wikipedia" should be abolished.
Indeed. :smile:
I think encyclopaedia has been around for a while
(Long enough for the American spelling to have time to diverge from the English spelling at least)
Yes, but "pedia" is not a word per-se. Indeed it comes from παῖς, -ός which means "kid"
To be absolutely precise, "pedia" comes from παιδεία, "education of the kids", which itself comes from παῖς. :smile:
Or one can just enjoy the flexibility of language in assembling pieces from different roots :shrug: There's clearly no basis for a 'consistent roots' rule of word formation in English anyhow.
In taxonomy it's a rule, actually. :smile:
In any case, everyone is entitled to their personal preference. There are paths also in cross-language contamination, and having personally always seen the world from a linguistic lens I find these kind of neologism quite unpleasant.
What's a computer called in Italian, again? :stuck_out_tongue_wink:
It's not like you were born before they proliferated; where does that feeling of unpleasantness come from, do you think?
[Mod] Morgan Rogers said:
What's a computer called in Italian, again? :stuck_out_tongue_wink:
That is a completely different issue, you are mixing things up. My personal prefernce comes from the fact that this has been seen as an issue in intellectual circles since roughly the XVII century, it's not something I'm making up out of nowhere. You can use this as reference. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Barbarism_(linguistics)
(I've been trained in Classics and I'm fluent in Latin, not fluent but I can translate from Ancient Greek. This makes me probably more sensitive to this issue.)
Fabrizio Genovese said:
this has been seen as an issue in intellectual circles since roughly the XVII century
I could surely read that as "there has been language snobbery for centuries". What I want to know is why, personally to you, does the fact that you can recognise when a word is constructed from different roots lead to a feeling of unpleasantness? It's not like these words are being used in their original languages. And why are modern borrowings, or derivatives from them, not comparable?
To use a Latin expression, de gustibus :stuck_out_tongue_wink:
To get us back on (off?) track, what about “abacklimits”.
“A sail is aback when the wind fills it from the opposite side to the one normally used to move the vessel forward.”
... “foreboundary”, “aftboundary”
Port and starboard adjoints.
leeward kan extension
Chad Nester said:
To get us back on (off?) track, what about “abacklimits”.
Yes please, I've had more than enough of this.
is “fore-aback”, is “aft-aback”.
In higher categories the n+2-structure is clearly “the rigging”.
... the obvious adjective seems to be “tangled”, so I guess for 2-categories has “tangled fore-rigging”, and so on.
I guess it makes sense to shorten this to “fore-tangled” and “aft-tangled”... so to answer the original question a 2-functor should be called a “fore-tangled 2-functor”.
A major advantage of this taxonomy is that you get to draw a sailboat whenever you explain it in your papers.
Okay so above "fore" and "aft" are mixed up. Oops!
One more nautical terminology suggestion... (after Reid Barton's above)
"Windward is the direction upwind from the point of reference, alternatively the direction from which the wind is coming. Leeward is the direction downwind from the point of reference."
We might call both limits and colimits as just "limits". Then what we usually call limits are "windward limits", and colimits are "leeward limits". This is intuitive if you think about (co)cones: In a windward cone for a diagram the arrows are all going towards the diagram in question, while for a leeward cone they are going away from it (like wind direction). Then a limit of a diagram is a "windmost cone", and a colimit of a diagram is a "leemost cone" (or something).