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Stream: theory: category theory

Topic: grothendieck construction as a colimit


view this post on Zulip Matteo Capucci (he/him) (Apr 19 2021 at 07:02):

On the nLab page for the Grothendieck construction, it's stated F\int F is an oplax colimit. The way it is phrased makes me think it refers to the covariant Grothendieck construction. Is there a similar characterization for the contravariant Grothendieck construction? Is it just the lax colimit of a contravariant pseudofunctor FF?

view this post on Zulip Amar Hadzihasanovic (Apr 19 2021 at 07:34):

You get the contravariant one from the covariant one by applying op-^\mathrm{op} on Cat\mathbf{Cat}.

You start from F:CCatF: C \to \mathbf{Cat}. First you obtain the covariant construction F\int F as an oplax colimit, i.e. a universal lax cone under FF with tip F\int F. Applying the involution op-^\mathrm{op} sends this to a universal oplax cone under FopF^\mathrm{op} (the “pointwise opposite” of FF) with tip (F)op(\int F)^\mathrm{op}, which is the contravariant Grothendieck construction. So the latter should be the lax colimit of the pointwise opposite of FF.

view this post on Zulip Matteo Capucci (he/him) (Apr 19 2021 at 08:36):

Right, I see :thinking:

view this post on Zulip Matteo Capucci (he/him) (Apr 19 2021 at 08:39):

So if I want to get opF\int_{op} F (I use op\int_{op} to denote contravariant Grothendieck), I just do Fpop\int F^{pop} (pop means pointwise opposite), since (Fpop)pop=F(F^{pop})^{pop} = F

view this post on Zulip Amar Hadzihasanovic (Apr 19 2021 at 08:59):

No, that's not right. It's opF=(F)op\int_\mathrm{op} F = (\int F)^\mathrm{op}.

view this post on Zulip Amar Hadzihasanovic (Apr 19 2021 at 08:59):

Which is different from (Fpop)\int (F^\mathrm{pop}).

view this post on Zulip Amar Hadzihasanovic (Apr 19 2021 at 09:01):

You can see that the latter is the oplax colimit of FpopF^\mathrm{pop}, while earlier I characterised opF\int_\mathrm{op} F as its lax colimit.

view this post on Zulip Matteo Capucci (he/him) (Apr 19 2021 at 09:40):

Amar Hadzihasanovic said:

No, that's not right. It's opF=(F)op\int_\mathrm{op} F = (\int F)^\mathrm{op}.

We might be working with different definitions then.

view this post on Zulip Matteo Capucci (he/him) (Apr 19 2021 at 09:41):

Let me check

view this post on Zulip Matteo Capucci (he/him) (Apr 19 2021 at 09:42):

Mmh so here opFpop=(F)op\int_{op} F^{pop} = (\int F)^{op}

view this post on Zulip Matteo Capucci (he/him) (Apr 19 2021 at 09:43):

But F:CopCatF : C^{op} \to Cat

view this post on Zulip Amar Hadzihasanovic (Apr 19 2021 at 10:38):

The variance of FF is irrelevant (you can always just let D=CopD = C^\mathrm{op}). What matters is that the covariant construction for F:CCatF: C \to \mathbf{Cat} produces an opfibration over CC and the contravariant construction a fibration over CopC^\mathrm{op}. If we fix what the covariant one is and call it F\int F, then I guess that (F)op(\int F)^\mathrm{op} and (Fpop)op(\int F^\mathrm{pop})^\mathrm{op} are equally good.

view this post on Zulip Amar Hadzihasanovic (Apr 19 2021 at 10:39):

If you adopt the latter, then I guess it does make the “colimit” characterisation simpler: (Fpop)op(\int F^\mathrm{pop})^\mathrm{op} is the lax colimit of FF.

view this post on Zulip Amar Hadzihasanovic (Apr 19 2021 at 10:40):

This is all assuming that you're right that (the covariant construction) F\int F is the oplax colimit of FF, which I have not checked :D

view this post on Zulip Matteo Capucci (he/him) (Apr 19 2021 at 15:06):

The nLab says so :) but it seems very reasonable up to what oplax/lax corresponds to

view this post on Zulip Matteo Capucci (he/him) (Apr 19 2021 at 15:06):

Amar Hadzihasanovic said:

If we fix what the covariant one is and call it F\int F, then I guess that (F)op(\int F)^\mathrm{op} and (Fpop)op(\int F^\mathrm{pop})^\mathrm{op} are equally good.

I don't understand this

view this post on Zulip Matteo Capucci (he/him) (Apr 19 2021 at 15:07):

What do you mean by equally good?

view this post on Zulip Matteo Capucci (he/him) (Apr 19 2021 at 15:21):

I think I'm challenging your claim that (F)op=opF(\int F)^{op} = \int_{op} F. In the first category, morphisms (A,A)(B,B)(A,A') \to (B,B') are given by arrows f:BAf : B \to A and f:F(f)(B)Af' : F(f)(B') \to A'. In the second category, morphisms (A,A)(B,B)(A,A') \to (B,B') are given by arrows f:BAf : B \to A and f:AF(f)(B)f' : A' \to F(f)(B').
If you flip FF pointwise, then the latter arrow lives in F(A)opF(A)^{op}, and thereby corresponds to an arrow F(f)(B)AF(f)(B') \to A' in F(A)F(A).

view this post on Zulip Matteo Capucci (he/him) (Apr 19 2021 at 15:27):

Your suggestion is valuable anyway: opop exchanges lax and oplax co/limits, so if F\int F is the oplax colimit of FF then (F)op(\int F)^{op} has to be the lax colimit. But then (F)op=opFpop(\int F)^{op} = \int_{op} F^{pop}. So the lax colimit of FF is presented by the contravariant Grothendieck construction of its pointwise opposite.

view this post on Zulip Matteo Capucci (he/him) (Apr 19 2021 at 15:30):

Now opF=(Fpop)op\int_{op} F = (\int F^{pop})^{op}. The latter is the lax colimit of FpopF^{pop}, hence opF\int_{op} F presents the lax colimit of its pointwise opposite.

view this post on Zulip Matteo Capucci (he/him) (Apr 19 2021 at 15:33):

What's the relationship between op/lax co/limits of FF and those of its ptwise opposite then? :thinking:

view this post on Zulip Amar Hadzihasanovic (Apr 19 2021 at 18:37):

@_Matteo Capucci (he/him)|275932 said:

What do you mean by equally good?

I mean that the question “which one is the (contravariant) Grothendieck construction” seems equally unimportant to me as “is ii or i-i the root of -1”. The contravariant Grothendieck construction is, in its essence, a way of turning a pseudofunctor CCatC \to \mathbf{Cat} into a Grothendieck fibration over CopC^\mathrm{op}. Since there is an involutive automorphism on pseudofunctors CCatC \to \mathbf{Cat}, the “pointwise opposite”, this way “is” two ways, related by the automorphism, and privileging one is only a matter of convenience. I have found (F)op(\int F)^\mathrm{op} more useful in my own work so I tend to think of it as “the” one but that's completely arbitrary.

view this post on Zulip Amar Hadzihasanovic (Apr 19 2021 at 18:44):

There's a similar argument to be made about whether the covariant or the contravariant Grothendieck construction are “the Grothendieck construction”... really it's all one thing, with a Z/2Z×Z/2Z\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z} group of automorphisms :)

view this post on Zulip Reid Barton (Apr 19 2021 at 19:24):

It seems sensible to set things up to be "unital" in the sense that if C=1C = 1, then both Grothendieck constructions applied to F:1CatF : 1 \to \mathrm{Cat} produce the original category F()F(*), not its opposite; particularly if one wants the construction to be given by a lax (or oplax) colimit.

view this post on Zulip Reid Barton (Apr 19 2021 at 19:25):

If I'm not mistaken, only one of the choices being discussed here has that property.