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Ha! I created a stream. The following might be of interest for public discussion.
Until a moment ago, I thought that complying with the basic principle of categorical ethics was easy: the arrows can be equal or not, but the objects can be isomorphic at best, and testing their equality is evil.
But the most basic operation of composition involves the object equality! The arrows $$f:A\to B$ and can be composed if , otherwise not. I do understand that I could implement categories so that the composition is defined with dependent types, using the definitional equality of the middle type. But what if there is some type-derivation going on on and ? What if they are vector spaces, given with no bases, but with the same dimension? Do I have to explicitly insert the isomorphism here? Being torn by moral doubts about evil aside, this would be a bit of a show stopper for doing linear algebra, wouldn't it?
Are there people here who still use tools with categories behind the screen? How do you handle this?
dusko said:
Ha! I created a stream. The following might be of interest for public discussion.
Congratulations! :tada: This looks like it would be more suitable (and get more attention) as a topic in a relevant existing stream, however. Did you know you can subscribe to streams you haven't been automatically subscribed to by clicking on the cog next to "STREAMS" and then clicking on "All Streams" in the top left?
@dusko Can someone "drag" this stream and turn it into one of the topics on one of the streams already available? Or can you copy and paste what you wrote into one? The reason is because no one will see any discussions here unless they actively click on the stream (it does not show up in "all messages").
I had some thoughts about this a few years ago. Namely, what if a "functor" acting on does not respect sources and targets but does so only up to some coherent isomorphism. From what I recall, one could show that such a "functor" is "equivalent" (in a generalized sense) to an actual functor. So I stopped thinking about it since then haha.
dusko said:
Do I have to explicitly insert the isomorphism here? Being torn by moral doubts about evil aside, this would be a bit of a show stopper for doing linear algebra, wouldn't it?
yes, you have to explicitly insert the iso; no, it's not a show-stopper
i mean, a finite-dimensional vector space is isomorphic to its dual, but we certainly don't treat them as equivalent
imo, definitional equality is absolutely the right way to think about the issue, and it's the reason why composition isn't evil
Morgan Rogers said:
dusko said:
Ha! I created a stream. The following might be of interest for public discussion.
Congratulations! :tada: This looks like it would be more suitable (and get more attention) as a topic in a relevant existing stream, however. Did you know you can subscribe to streams you haven't been automatically subscribed to by clicking on the cog next to "STREAMS" and then clicking on "All Streams" in the top left?
It would have saved me some learning if I found a stream that might be related to this. "Related" is of course relative, but I thought that dropping an unrelated question would be worse than creating a related stream. But if there is a related one, lets join this one there. Or simply shut it?
Arthur Parzygnat said:
dusko Can someone "drag" this stream and turn it into one of the topics on one of the streams already available? Or can you copy and paste what you wrote into one? The reason is because no one will see any discussions here unless they actively click on the stream (it does not show up in "all messages").
I had some thoughts about this a few years ago. Namely, what if a "functor" acting on does not respect sources and targets but does so only up to some coherent isomorphism. From what I recall, one could show that such a "functor" is "equivalent" (in a generalized sense) to an actual functor. So I stopped thinking about it since then haha.
i don't know how to do it. if anyone else does, or can do it, lets do it.
Arthur Parzygnat said:
dusko
I had some thoughts about this a few years ago. Namely, what if a "functor" acting on does not respect sources and targets but does so only up to some coherent isomorphism. From what I recall, one could show that such a "functor" is "equivalent" (in a generalized sense) to an actual functor. So I stopped thinking about it since then haha.
two functors can be equivalent, but the isomorphisms may be hard to construct. i think one could find simple examples where they are not computable. so a general equivalence proof may not help with the actual calculation. just like with the strictifications: e.g., every monoidal category can be made strictly associative and unitary, but that usually does not buy you anything practical. on the other extreme, may land in one -dim space may take inputs from another -dim space. Sometimes it may be good to spell out the change of base from to explicitly. But if we tell a mathematician that they cannot compose and unless they know the bases of and , and explain that this is because saying that and are the same space is evil, they might give us a very careful, worried look.
dusko said:
Morgan Rogers said:
dusko said:
Ha! I created a stream. The following might be of interest for public discussion.
Congratulations! :tada: This looks like it would be more suitable (and get more attention) as a topic in a relevant existing stream, however. Did you know you can subscribe to streams you haven't been automatically subscribed to by clicking on the cog next to "STREAMS" and then clicking on "All Streams" in the top left?
It would have saved me some learning if I found a stream that might be related to this. "Related" is of course relative, but I thought that dropping an unrelated question would be worse than creating a related stream. But if there is a related one, lets join this one there. Or simply shut it?
i think this is perfectly on-topic for #theory: category theory
and again, i don't think they would give you a look
do you really expect a typical mathematician to be happy with, say, applying a differential form to a cotangent vector instead of a tangent vector? (let's assume we're not given a riemannian structure or anything for converting between the two)
the choice of isomorphism changes what the result of the composition is
you can't just handwave it
not unless you've fixed one ahead of time
or, even better example:
say p is a point in S²; then T_p S² is a 2d real vector space, so it is isomorphic to R². call it V. then id_V : V → V and id_{R²} : R² → R², so we can compose them and get a function V → R², right?
then we can compose them in the other direction and get one R² → V, right? and compose those two, R² → V and then V → R², and end up with something R² → R²?
now what's the determinant of this?