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I recently came across the following groupoid in my research, and it seems like something that probably has a much slicker description and that has been studied before, so any comments or observations would be lovely :blush:
The objects of are partitions of a finite set into two subsets, or, equivalently, just a subset of a finite set, e.g. . There is exactly one morphism between any two objects if the finite sets that they partition are of the same size, and there are no (non-identity) morphisms otherwise.
This is equivalently the set of pairs of cardinal numbers; the groupoidal structure doesn't seem interesting.
I don’t quite see how that’s true. For example, and are different objects , but both correspond to
maybe I should have replaced “finite sets” with “finite sets of the form ”
But there will be an invertible morphism between them, because they have the same cardinality, no?
Perhaps I misunderstood the description.
no, you’re right, but I don’t want to think of isomorphic objects as being equal
which I guess is “evil” maybe
You might as well call a set equipped with an equivalence relation, then
I guess examples where something like this comes up are the and operads (nonsymmetric in the case of ) valued in categories, which encode the theory of monoidal/symmetric monoidal categories. By design, the th category of is a contractible groupoid for each , but they can't all just be the terminal category because needs to be cofibrant.
There's a similar gadget involving cubes which appears in the formula for the simplicial nerve, which could be related to your example because vertices of an -cube can be identified with subsets of .
Tim Hosgood said:
no, you’re right, but I don’t want to think of isomorphic objects as being equal
how come? is it because you make use of which things are elements of the sets?
if so, then you should probably be thinking of this as a groupoid equipped with certain functors
yeah, i use the numbers to label some things, so the actual elements are important in this sense
what do you mean by certain functors?
umm, maybe not "certain functors" exactly, i havent thought about it really, but
i just mean that it's common for issues of "the objects im working with have a naturally finer notion of comparison than the natural categorical one" to be a symptom of failing to make certain data an explicit part of the objects
the archetypal example i have in mind is like
for a group G, you can have two subgroups of G that are isomorphic as groups, but induce non-isomorphic quotients—which seems problematic at first glance...
but the issue is that a "subgroup of G" is not an object of Grp, categorically speaking—it's an object of Grp/G
you need the map into G as part of the data
The category is equivalent to the set viewed as a discrete category. More specifically, the functor sending any to is an equivalence of categories. We could think of as a version of where each has been "blown up" into a contractible groupoid.
Clearly, there must be some reason that you need this "blown up" , otherwise you'd just use instead. A common reason in homotopy theory/higher category theory is that you need to take a cofibrant replacement in order to make some 1-categorical construction be homotopy/equivalence-invariant. For example, consider the associator in a monoidal category. We want to say that in the expression , it's "the same" whether you consider it as or as . But to ask for a literal equality of objects would be "evil"--not equivalence-invariant. So, instead of having a single operation , we "blow up" the possible ways to evaluate to the equivalent groupoid . The interpretation of this isomorphism is as the associator . In general, for each , we have a contractible groupoid of ways to interpret the expression , and what forces us to use these fancy blown-up contractible groupoids is the operad structure which relates these operations for varying .
So, it's possible there is something similar in your situation--some setting in which the specific category (up to isomorphism) is a cofibrant replacement of the category .
all very helpful comments, thank you!
Quite generally, Tim, you'll find category theorists puzzled if you declare yourself unwilling to think of equivalent categories as "the same". You can always take a category C and find an equivalent category called a "skeleton" which has one object for each isomorphism class of objects in C. In this skeleton isomorphic objects are equal. So, when you say something like
I don’t want to think of isomorphic objects as being equal
then category theorists start wondering what you're up to.
If you want, you can tell them you're working with the 1-category Cat, not the 2-category Cat. That may assuage them - or they may ask you why.
or he could just say that he's a homotopy theorist
If that's what homotopy theorists do, why are they trying to build a formal system where isomorphic things are considered equal?
because it's "equal" that should change, not "isomorphic"!
Dan Doel said:
If that's what homotopy theorists do, why are they trying to build a formal system where isomorphic things are considered equal?
it's pl theorists who are building hott, not homotopy theorists :upside_down:
tongue in cheek, tongue in cheek
Voevodsky was a PL theorist?
i did say i was being tongue in cheek :p
but i mean, more seriously, isnt half of the field of homotopy theory all about dealing with strict representatives of weak objects
Indeed, homotopy theory is a really different subject than homotopy type theory, with a different crew of people doing different things.