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In this paper: On Flat Semimodules over Semirings, they define:
Definition: A semimodule over a semiring is flat iff preserves finite limits.
And the main result of the paper is:
Theorem: A semimodule is flat iff it is a filtered colomit of finitely generated free semimodules.
We could more generally define:
Definition: Let be a finitely complete symmetric monoidal category. An object is flat iff preserves finite limits.
Definition: Let be a symmetric monoidal category with finite coproducts. An object is finitely generated free iff there is an isomorphism for some .
Then, we could maybe have:
Conjecture: Let be a finitely complete symmetric monoidal category with finite coproducts and , then is flat iff is a filtered colimit of finitely generated free objects.
Does anything like this is known?
I don't think that this conjecture is true in such a general setting, but maybe it works with additional requirements. I would be interested to know about such requirements which could make it true. When I look at the previous paper, it seems to be all very categorical, probably I should just try to understand the paper and everything could maybe be categorified.
There is a lot of material about flat functors on the nlab but it is never about flat functors in a monoidal category. But maybe we can recover what I want from this material. In this case the paper "On Flat Semimodules over Semiring" is a bit useless. Or there is a paper Purity and flatness in symmetric monoidal closed exact categories but they assume a lot more structure for their setting, it looks very complicated and I don't see that they talk about something like this (but I haven't read it and I probably would not be able to understand it properly quickly).
I like your conjecture. I wish I understood this remark in the nLab, which might offer a slick way to prove this conjecture:
Theorem 2.5. A module is flat if and only if it is a filtered colimit of finitely generated free modules.
This observation (Wraith, Blass) can be put into the more general context of modelling geometric theories by geometric morphisms from their classifying toposes, or equivalently, certain flat functors from sites for such topoi.
The paper
Bulman-Fleming, S., & McDowell, K. (1978). Flat semilattices. Proceedings of the American Mathematical Society, 72(2), 228-232.
states that the two notions of flatness do not coincide in general. From the first page:
Screenshot_20231115_223033.png
In the context of classifying toposes, the term "flat model" is used for filtered colimits of (finitely generated) free models of an algebraic theory. Flat models of an algebraic theory are classified by the topos of presheaves on the Lawvere theory.
This topos is a subtopos of the presheaf topos on the "enveloping finite-limit theory" of the Lawvere theory, which classifies all models of the theory.
This concept of flatness doesn't make sense for general geometric theories, where there is no notion of free model, but generalizes at least to models of "Generalized algebraic theories" in Cartmell's sense (meaning filtered colimit of representable models here), and I use it in this sense in connection with the fat small object argument in my recent paper on clan duality.
Anyway, it's interesting to know that the notions coincide for semimodules!
Jonas Frey said:
The paper
Bulman-Fleming, S., & McDowell, K. (1978). Flat semilattices. Proceedings of the American Mathematical Society, 72(2), 228-232.
states that the two notions of flatness do not coincide in general. From the first page:
Thanks!
The equivalence between a flat object and an -flat object might still be verified by some class of monoidal categories which contains the categories of semimodules over a semiring but is not reduced to the class of these categories.
For instance, maybe that:
Conjecture 2: Let be a finitely complete symmetric monoidal category enriched over commutative monoids (such that is bilinear) with finite coproducts. Then for every , is flat iff is -flat.
Where you say that is -flat if it is a filtered colimit of some .
Of course, it is still maybe false but at least categories of -sets don't verify these conditions because they are not enriched over commutative monoids.
Monoidal categories can be quite different from a category of semimodules but symmetric monoidal categories enriched over commutative monoids are much closer.
Maybe it's helpful to notice that every object of a symmetric monoidal category is a module over the commutative monoid of scalars in . What I mean exactly by module here is that there is, for every a functor that picks and sends a scalar to its conjugation by the right or left unitors (Idk if it matters which one you pick).
Moreover, if has coproducts (I might need infinite ones though) then it is -tensored so you can internalize the action of to a morphism in itself. Maybe this helps too.
At this point if I were trying to prove @Jean-Baptiste Vienney's conjecture, maybe with extra hypotheses, I'd first study Wraith and Blass' proof for modules of rings - they both write quite well! - and then study Yetsin Katsov's proof for semimodules of semirings. Then I'd try to copy what they did in greater generality, seeing what hypotheses I need.
But without knowing those proofs I'm stuck.
Yes, sure ahah. I’ll try to do it!
Matteo Capucci (he/him) said:
Maybe it's helpful to notice that every object of a symmetric monoidal category is a module over the commutative monoid of scalars in . What I mean exactly by module here is that there is, for every a functor that picks and sends a scalar to its conjugation by the right or left unitors (Idk if it matters which one you pick).
I know that is a monoid. Moreover it is commutative (in any monoidal category) and you get actions . If is enriched over commutative monoids, it turns out that is a moreover a semi-ring and every a -semi-module. So monoidal categories enriched over commutative monoids are just monoidal categories enriched over semi-modules over an unspecified semi-ring and I love this class of categories!
But what is ?
of a monoid is the corresponding one-object category. If the monoid is commutative, this category is symmetric monoidal.
Oh, ok. And what is the tensor product?
The only thing it possibly could be.
There aren't a lot of binary operations here!
It is the composition = the product of the monoid?
Yes.
I’m confused. So in this category, the tensor product is equal to the composition? It’s weird.
Maybe it's weird, but it's inevitable and famous. Whenever you have a monoidal category with unit object , the hom-set has two binary operations: composition and the tensor product. But they are the same.
Study the periodic table, my son! :upside_down:
Those arrows pointing up and to the right are .
A monoid is a one-object category.
A commutative monoid is a one-object monoidal category.
A commutative monoid is a one-object braided monoidal category.
A commutative monoid is a one-object symmetric monoidal category.
Etc.
I explained this stuff here:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=X1PkkqDwf8Y
John Baez said:
Maybe it's weird, but it's inevitable and famous. Whenever you have a monoidal category with unit object , the hom-set has two binary operations: composition and the tensor product. But they are the same.
I remember this now but I didn’t know that you get a symmetric monoidal category with tensor product equal to the composition if you start from a monoid! I’m glad to learn this.
If you start from a commutative monoid.
I was reading Callum Reader's thesis and found out my observation above is well-known (unsurprisingly)! See Section 5.2.
Yes, I work a lot on -enriched symmetric monoidal categories , and for these, is an associative algebra over the field , and this algebra acts on every object, so in some sense every object of is a module of this algebra. But notice - and also in the more general situation you were talking about - objects of are not sets, so these objects are "modules in " rather than modules in the usual sense. (Of course, objects in may have underlying sets.)
Also, as you noted, the hom-sets of are modules in the usual sense.